This thread is dealing with a subject that I admit I wish I understood better.
Here is a scripture verse dealing with the crucifixion that I think incorporates God's sovereignty and man's responsibility.
Acts 2:23 Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain.
Jesus was delivered up by the determinate counsel of God. I see no other way to interpret this than that God decided that this would be done, and arranged all the circumstances to bring it about.
Jesus was also delivered up by the foreknowledge of God. Certainly, God knew what was going to happen. But how did he know? I think it is his determinate counsel. He knew because he determined.
Yet, Peter described those who killed Jesus as with wicked hands. Some of them may have been in his audience, since he referred to those he was talking about as "you." "You have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain."
Now, how do I resolve the dilemma? God determined, so it was going to happen. There is no way it was not going to happen. Yet those who did it are responsible.
I can't resolve it. But there is is.
Might we be guilty of not seeing the forest because of the trees?
Is it not both?
We get so worked up that God cannot and will not and does not cause any man to sin. Afterall, God is pure love and if He were to be responsible for one's sin then He could not be pure! Why not? If we understand God is always just in His judgments then why can't God cause Pharaoh to sin and still be pure and holy?
We toss around the words "God is sovereign" and then we deny Him this right to cause sin and create evil in ways that fulfills His plans that He has established before He laid the foundation of the world and that glorifies His name throughout all the earth.
Why did God harden Pharoahs heart? We are told....
Exd 14:4And I will harden Pharaoh's heart, that he shall follow after them; and I will be honoured upon Pharaoh, and upon all his host; that the Egyptians may know that I [am] the LORD. And they did so.
Rom 9:17For the scripture saith unto Pharaoh, Even for this same purpose have I raised thee up, that I might shew my power in thee, and that my name might be declared throughout all the earth.
But we dismiss this fact and justify our dismissal by saying "God turned him over to his own hardening". However true this is, it does not dismiss the fact that God caused Pharaoh to sin by not allowing him to choose anymore.
This is explained in Romans 9 but we Christians today have been indoctrinated to believe that there is this great power struggle going on between God and satan. Is there a power struggle going on? Of course not, not between God and satan. God can crush satan anytime He wills. So what then? Satan is under God's rule and satan was created by God, for God's purposes. Any power struggle perceived is there because God places it there for His purposes.
So the scripture then says....
Rom 9:19 Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will?
Rom 9:20 Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed [it], Why hast thou made me thus?
Sinners, including the angels that sinned, are still held responsible and found guilty. Why?
Rom 9:22 [What] if God, willing to shew [his] wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction:
These vessels were not born without a free-will choice. It is only after "much longsuffering" on God's part that they are fitted then to destruction. Thus they are guilty AND God causes them to stay guilty that His power and wrath might be known.
We say "that can't be, everyone has a choice and everyone can be saved if they will trust in Jesus". It can be and it is. God's word is clear...
Rom 9:18 Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will [have mercy], and whom he will he hardeneth.
What is it that causes us to reject these truths? Is it the lack of teaching found in todays churches concerning God's sovereinty? Oh we throw that term around a good bit but is the church teaching what that word really means and all the implications that it brings to events around the world and in each person's life?
We say "no, God cannot 'cause' sin, God 'allows' sin". Hardening a man's heart so that he cannot obey God's command is nothing less than causing the man to disobey and to disobey is sin....
Rom 9:14¶What shall we say then? [Is there] unrighteousness with God? God forbid.
We have no problem with accepting the fact that the scripture declares God is One and God is three persons and both statements are true.
Why can't we accept the scripture that displays God is sovereign over even sin and can cause sin after His righteous judgments, and for His righteous purposes, yet God is not guilty of sin nor stained at all with sin?
Did God sit down before He created the world and workshop this all out? Did He say "if I do this, then satan will do that, and Adam will do this, then I will have to do this, and so on and son on?"
Or, did God plan the fall of Adam so Jesus could be glorified? Think about all of this. Would Jesus be deeply honored and praised had He never a need to die for sin?
Rom 9:22 [What] if God, willing to shew [his] wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction:
Rom 9:23 And that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory,
No sin, no mercy. How could God show his creation His eternal attribute of mercy without the condemnation of sin?
Do we really understand "sovereinty"?
"Cause verses Allows". Isn't both true?
:jesus: