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Children

Jerome

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I think the reason Christians should have children is to spread the gospel.

The Muslims clearly understand this. I have read several articles that say Muslims are taking over Europe. Here is one article.

http://www.energypublisher.com/article.asp?idarticle=20122

I forget where I read it, but one article said the average Muslim family has 8 children compared to less than 2 in America and Europe.

Whether people realize it or not, this is a huge challange to "Christian" nations. We will see the results of this soon.
Christianity grows by the second birth, not the first birth (John 3).
 
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iasusxrist

Guest
Be fruitful and multiply:
If it was 'not' a command to Adam specifically, but to mankind: Could Adam have Rightly stayed single (1Co 7) and not had children, without breaking this command?

The only question is, was Adam already "married" when this command came about?
 

Johnv

New Member
To the question, "Could Adam have Rightly stayed single (1Co 7) and not had children, without breaking this command?", first of all, 1Cor 7 did not yet exist. Second, if there were other members of humanity that were procreating, then it did not fall to Adam alone. Since, however, the narrative has Adam and Eve being the lone members of humanity, it's a given that they would have had to procreate in order for the command to be in effect.

To the question, "was Adam already 'married' when this command came about?" Dunno, and it's not important either way.
 
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iasusxrist

Guest
What other members were there, John? Has not all mankind come through Adam, even before noah - hence the curse on all men?
 

Johnv

New Member
I didn't say there were other members. I said "if" there were others, "then" it wouldn't fall to Adam.
 
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iasusxrist

Guest
I see.

How is it not important that Adam was married or not?

One of two things happens:
Either singleness was allowed before 1Co 7, and his marriage "could" mean that all 'married' people are commanded to multiply, and it applied both directly to Adam because he was married, and to all peoples.

Or, that command was to all of mankind, and no longer is to all of mankind - because 1Co 7 clearly states that singleness is allowed.
 

Johnv

New Member
The reason it doesn't matter is because by the time Adam and Eve had children there's a clear presuption that they were married.
 

Repent-or-Burn

New Member
Adam and Eve were married when the command was given, I think. 'Flesh of my flesh.' This "may" not mean One Flesh.. thoughts?
PS 127 cannot be countered by the adoption argument, for it is "the fruit of the womb." I would take this to mean Her womb, not someone else's.

I am now convinced that we Are required to have children, if possible - and if married.
Be fruitful, and multiply... 'Replenish the earth.'
It would have been an impossibility for Adam to do this, and the same command was given to Noah - with the, subdue the earth, part removed. Thus, that has been accomplished. We cannot see this is the goal of multiplication. The goal is to replenish the earth.

The only argument that I myself can see, is as to what replenish means... .. Possibly, the part on being single in 1co 7 - but that seems weak at best. Adam and Eve "were already married when" this command was given.

Thoughts?
 
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sag38

Active Member
If you are personally convinced of this then I hope you are trying to have children. But, I think you are taking the scripture to far to demand that married people have children.
 

Johnv

New Member
"Flesh of my flesh" referrs to Eve being an equal to Adam. It is not a reference to whether or not they were married.

Now, in regards to "be fruitful and multiply", I've previously noted that this is a command given to peoples as a whole, not to individuals as a married couple. It is not a commandment telling every couple to have at lest x number of children. Note that individuals cannot have enough children to replenish the earth.

There is no scriptural command that requires a married person or persons to have children as a matter of obedience. Choosing to have children, and choosing how many children to have, is entirely between a couple and God, and does not involve anyone else.
 

ReformedBaptist

Well-Known Member
Flesh of my flesh" referrs to Eve being an equal to Adam. It is not a reference to whether or not they were married

I thought it was a statement made by Adam becasue Eve was created by God using Adam's flesh, a rib. Therefore he called her "woman" "from-man" and said she was flesh of his flesh, and bone of his bone.

And in this is a great mystery according the Scripture, found in Ephesians speaking of Christ and His Church. We are flesh of His flesh, and bone of His bone.
 

Repent-or-Burn

New Member
Reformed Baptist,

Eph 5:29 For no man ever yet hated his own flesh; but nourisheth and cherisheth it, even as the Lord the church:
Eph 5:30 For we are members of his body, of his flesh, and of his bones.
Eph 5:31 For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and shall be joined unto his wife, and they two shall be one flesh.

It seems to be saying exactly that they 'are' one flesh in, in the marriage context???
 
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