Throughout the NT one reads the expression of the Son of God as either "Christ Jesus" or "Jesus Christ."
Is there any particular reason why these words are placed in the order in which they appear in God's Word?
One explanation I've heard of states that the order in which they appear has something to do with either the immediate context of the book's author or the general context of that book.
IOW, "Christ Jesus" is used when His Messianic Kingship is to be emphasized--similar to what you read in the latter part of Revelation 19.
"Jesus Christ" is used when His role as Savior is to be emphasized--probably based on Matthew 1:21.
What do you folks out there in BB Land believe about this?
Is there any particular reason why these words are placed in the order in which they appear in God's Word?
One explanation I've heard of states that the order in which they appear has something to do with either the immediate context of the book's author or the general context of that book.
IOW, "Christ Jesus" is used when His Messianic Kingship is to be emphasized--similar to what you read in the latter part of Revelation 19.
"Jesus Christ" is used when His role as Savior is to be emphasized--probably based on Matthew 1:21.
What do you folks out there in BB Land believe about this?