Christ's Death

[Martin Marprelate]

Biblically Christ's phyisical death occured (verse 30) after the atonement (before verse 28). John's account makes that case.

John 19:28-30, ". . . After this, Jesus knowing that all things were now accomplished, that the scripture might be fulfilled, saith, I thirst. Now there was set a vessel full of vinegar: and they filled a spunge with vinegar, and put it upon hyssop, and put it to his mouth. When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, It is finished: and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost. . . ."

See my post #92 above.

 

[percho]

for what the law was not able to do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God, His own Son having sent in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, did condemn the sin in the flesh, [dative, if relative] Rom 8:3
because also Christ once for sin did suffer -- righteous for unrighteous -- that he might lead us to God, having been put to death indeed, in the flesh [dative, if relative], and having been made alive in the spirit, 1 Peter 3:18

I think my question to the OP is Rom 8:3 begins by saying there is condemnation to those in Christ Jesus yet the sin was condemned in the flesh of Christ. Isn't the word condemn penal in nature?

@JonC

 

[JonC]

for what the law was not able to do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God, His own Son having sent in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, did condemn the sin in the flesh, [dative, if relative] Rom 8:3
because also Christ once for sin did suffer -- righteous for unrighteous -- that he might lead us to God, having been put to death indeed, in the flesh [dative, if relative], and having been made alive in the spirit, 1 Peter 3:18

I think my question to the OP is Rom 8:3 begins by saying there is condemnation to those in Christ Jesus yet the sin was condemned in the flesh of Christ. Isn't the word condemn penal in nature?

@JonC

The word "condemned" itself is not. The penal part would be the exercise of punitive judgment on the condemned.

One can view the wages of sin being death as a penality. But then again, a penality is not necessarily a punishment.

That said, Scripture says that the consequences (the wages) of sin is death and then the Judgment. At the Judgment the wicked will experience what ai believe to be punishment.

 

[37818]

Paul tells we are reconciled through Christ's death. . . .

Please answer the following question: What was completed ["were . . . accomplished" "It is finished"] before Christ had phyisically died?

 

[37818]

Is it reasonable to argue that nothing was accomplished/finished/performed/paid until the Lord Jesus died?

I have the understanding Christ's death was two deaths. His soul for our atonement per Isaiah 53:10 and Isaiah 53:12. And His physical death for His resurrection, 1 Corinthians 15:17, Romans 4:25.

 

[JonC]

Please answer the following question: What was completed ["were . . . accomplished" "It is finished"] before Christ had phyisically died?

Christ's ministry (His obedience to death, even the death on a cross) was accomplished and it was time to commit His Spirit into the hands of the Father.

Scripture tells us this. He was fulfilling the OT (that is why He said "I thirst").

The Atonement (Reconciliation) necessitated Christ's death on a Roman Cross. We do not have a deathless Atonement.