This does not change the fact that Peter answered in behalf of the rest. No one else disputed Peter's response because that response characterized what they all had formerly confessed. No one else supplied a different response because Peter expressed the view of all of them. Furthermore, what Jesus said of Peter in verse 17 equally applied to all the rest as they all received their conviction from the very same source.
Yet, your statements do not fit with the Greek grammar at all. You may try to excuse the Greek Grammar, but the Greek Grammar cannot be changed. There does not appear to be any textual variants that could help you say what you are saying either.
What you are failing to see is that Jesus is the one who specially gave this name to Simon (Jn. 1:42) for a specific purpose and this is the only place in scripture where that purpose comes into view.
What you also fail to see is that Jesus turns this discussion into a BUILDING context:
1. There is a builder - "I"
2. There is something to be built - "my church"
3. There is something to build upon - "upon this rock"
Again, the "this" must have an antecedent that is in the nominative case. Basic Greek grammar logically must refer to Peter. If you can show me grammatically how it can refer to another sentence and another nominative case word in another sentence that overlooks a very close in proximity nominative case word, I may listen. Yet, I think you are on very thin ice in the Greek Grammar. While this refers to the rock, the rock must refer to something within that sentence and that seems clear it is Peter.
But there is nothing supplied in this building context to describe the kind of material to build with EXCEPT the intentional play upon Simon's new name "Petros." What makes this point especially powerful is that later when Peter chooses to describe the materials used in building the church applies the very same metaphor "lively stones BUILT UP a spiritual house" (1 Pet. 2:5) and describes Christ as the "petra" or foundation for that spiritual house (1 Pet. 2:8). Where did Peter get that analogy from if not from this very discussion by Christ??? In addition, when Christ uses the "keys" analogy the second time he does not direct it to singular "Peter" but to PLURAL "you" (Mt. 18:17-18) previously identified as "the church" exactly as it is used in connection with a church context in Mt. 16:18-19. These are forceful facts.
You said the word "you" referring to when Jesus said he will give "you the keys" to the kingdom is in the plural. I triple checked this and it appears you are wrong. The Greek words are dwsw soi, which both the dwsw and soi are in the 2nd person singular. I checked a couple of commentaries wondering if people saw a textual variant or there is an abnormal use of these words or if there could be a compound singular involved. I could find nothing to substantiate such a translation. One commentary clearly stated that it must refer to Peter because of the grammar. I tend to agree.
In addition your following responses to avoid my position that Peter is intentionallly separated by Christ to characterize the building materials used in construction of His church are based upon errors which I will point out.
I don’t really avoid it because the question is Greek Grammar which should lead to interpretation. Thus, if I am correct in my grammar, the rest works out as well.
No laws of grammar are violated. Your grammatical conclusions are in error on several counts. It is the third person SINGULAR pronoun "it" [apekalupsen] in verse 17 that is the nearest antecedent of the "this rock" in verse 18. Check your Greet text again. Sure "this" modifies "rock" but as you admit "granted, this rock is referring to something" and it cannot grammatically refer to "Peter" because grammatically Christ uses the singular SECOND person pronoun for Peter [soi] but the THIRD person singular ("taute") to identify the "rock" which is the very same third person singular for "it" in verse 17 and for "this" in verse 16 that modifies Peter's response in verse 15.
Apekalupsen is not the nearest antecedent. Petros in verse 18 is the nearest antecedent and verse 17 is a different sentence. The sentence states, “kagw de soi legw oti su ei Petros, kai epii tautn tn petra….” You can see that Petros is just a couple of words away from tautn tn petra. Petros is the nearest noun as you don’t have to jump over another sentence nor over other words to get to that antecedent. Petros is in the nominative case, thus is the most logical selection. Why you skip over Petros is not based upon grammar.
Yes, Jesus uses the second person pronoun for Jesus, but that is commonly done. The second person singular but emphasizes the subject of Peter by using the Nominative case, which is the most important portion of this scenario. I went on to consult several commentaries and grammars last night. No one I could find would say that Peter could not be the one it was referring to based upon grammar. Yes, some people had other explanations. I even went so far as to try to diagram this section. This makes logical and grammatical sense that this “this” could modify rock which is dealing with the nominative Peter. It also does not make sense to go to another sentence as you propose.
Hence, final authority for appointment rests in the congregation not the presbytery as they only SERVE the will of the congregation.
I have never argued for Presbyterianism. If you look at my historic analysis and other posts, I not advocate any type of Presbyterianism. Having mentioned my position several times, this again borders on either your ignorance of Presbyterianism, ignorance of my position, or just stereotyping. I do not even hold to Griffith’s version of Elders, which is not completely Presbyterian but closer than my own position.
As well, the Pastoral position is not to only serve the will of the people but to actually have authority.
Sample of Authority of Elders.
They made a decisive doctrinal statement in Acts 15, the congregations affirmed it, but never voted upon it.
Titus was told to preach various things and rebuke those with all authority who opposed (Titus 2:15). If he had no authority as a Pastor, he would have been told to take it to the congregation.
In III John, there are interesting statements. First, the author of III John, who is traditionally named as the apostle, refers to himself as “Elder” (v. 1). However, when Diotrophese refuses to listen, the Elder says, Diotrophese, “does not acknowledge our authority.” Once again, the appeal is not to the congregation, but an Elder.
The qualifications of an Elder states he must be able to rule/manage his own household. The Greek word here could be translated a number of ways, but it is used of a ruler ruling over his kingdom to a father ruling in his home. Thus, there is authority in the Eldership.
Hebrews 13:17 clearly states, “Obey your leaders and submit to them, for they are keeping watch over your souls, as those who will have to give an account. Let them do this with joy and not with groaning, for that would be of no advantage to you.”
Therefore, there is solid authority in the Eldership. We are told to submit to them, there seems to be authority applied to them, and even Titus was told (not the congregation) to appoint other Elders, a job not delegated to the church. There is authority. We can discuss the limits of that authority which is a good discussion, but you cannot deny a real authority in the Eldership.
see more in the next post