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Could Christ Have Sinned? III

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SGO

Well-Known Member
can you explain, how Jesus was able in 33 years, not to give into temptation ONCE? How many days do you think that the most godly person can go without sinning? The Bible says of Job, "There was a man in the land of Uz, whose name was Job; and that man was perfect and upright, and one that feared God, and eschewed evil." (1:1). Yet this same man says, "“I made a covenant with my eyes not to look lustfully at a young woman." (31:1). In Acts 13:22, we read of the great King David, "I have found David son of Jesse, a man after my own heart; he will do everything I want him to do’". We know what David got up to! How did Jesus do it, without even lusting after a beautiful woman, just the one time?


He relied on God and did not want to sin.
No sin was in Him.
He was tempted AS WE ARE, yet without sin.
We cannot relate to His resistance that is why it is so hard to understand and even deal with.
SBG, my brother.
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
He relied on God and did not want to sin

He IS Almighty God! Always has been Almighty God! No where in the Bible does it say that Jesus had to "rely" on the Father, or Holy Spirit, do be able to live a sinless life! He did, because He IS the God-Man, in the One Person. As this Person, He could not fall into sin. Sure He was "tested as we are", because He felt the full force of temptation, and is able to help us as He fully undersatnds what it is. But, this does not mean that He must have been able to have fallen. The fat that for 33 years Jesus Christ was 100% SINLESS, shows that it is more than just "relying" on the Father, because if it were this, then He would have fallen the one time. If, He was able to "rely" on the Father, to stop Him sinning, then why is this not possible for a single human being to do for a few hours? Remember, we also sin in our hearts and minds. You, like the others of your view, are trying to use human logic, and apply this to the God-Man, Who is 100% never like us, as we can never be Divine/human!
 

Tsalagi

Member
Sure He was "tested as we are", because He felt the full force of temptation
There is no such thing as "feeling the full force of temptation" to do something impossible. Can you be tempted to turn rocks into bread? It is not possible for you, thus you can't feel any force of temptation to do it. It WAS possible for Jesus.
 

Tsalagi

Member
How did Jesus do it, without even lusting after a beautiful woman, just the one time?
Jesus demonstrated the full sufficiency of the filling of the Holy Spirit (Luke 4:1) and the Word of God (Luke 4:4-12), the same resources He has given to us. He is the textbook example of how we are to meet and overcome temptation.
 

Tsalagi

Member
Again, Philosophy. Is there anything an omnipotent being can not do?
You are the only one bringing up philosophical speculations about omnipotence here. The Bible says God is eternal, the Bible says Jesus is God, and the Bible says Jesus died. That's the point.
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Jesus demonstrated the full sufficiency of the filling of the Holy Spirit (Luke 4:1) and the Word of God (Luke 4:4-12), the same resources He has given to us. He is the textbook example of how we are to meet and overcome temptation.

how many hours have you gone in a day without sinning a single sin? Even righteous Job could not!
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
There is no such thing as "feeling the full force of temptation" to do something impossible. Can you be tempted to turn rocks into bread? It is not possible for you, thus you can't feel any force of temptation to do it. It WAS possible for Jesus.

Jesus Christ IS UNIQUE, which is why He is called "μονογενής", which means just that! you can never compare like-for-like between any human being, regardless of how "holy" they might be, with the Eternal God, Who was manifested in the flesh. This is not even possible. Your reasoning is human logic, which does not work with God.
 

SGO

Well-Known Member
Wouldn't just be easier for all of us if God had written:

For there is one God,
and one mediator between God and men,
the God Christ Jesus.
1 Timothy 2:5 edited

or God-man
or even strike the word between.

For there is one God,
and one mediator
God-man,
the God Christ Jesus.

No need for "man" because while He was a complete man He relied on Himself to accomplish His work.

... for the works
which the Father hath
given me
to finish,
the same works that I do...
John 5:36

And the Holy Ghost
descended in a bodily shape
like a dove upon him, ...
Luke 3:22
 

Tsalagi

Member
Jesus Christ IS UNIQUE, which is why He is called "μονογενής", which means just that! you can never compare like-for-like between any human being, regardless of how "holy" they might be, with the Eternal God, Who was manifested in the flesh. This is not even possible. Your reasoning is human logic, which does not work with God.
I am simply reading Scriptures like Hebrews 4:15, Matthew 26:38, and John 12:27 with comprehension.
Your entire argument here is "human logic," my friend.
 

Tsalagi

Member
you cannot answer the simple question, and then think that you understand Christology!
Jesus did not have the corrupted human nature we all inherit paternally from Adam (Romans 5:12). He entered the world like Adam, free to choose obedience or disobedience. "Though He were a Son, yet learned he obedience by the things which He suffered" (Hebrews 5:8).
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Jesus did not have the corrupted human nature we all inherit paternally from Adam (Romans 5:12). He entered the world like Adam, free to choose obedience or disobedience. "Though He were a Son, yet learned he obedience by the things which He suffered" (Hebrews 5:8).

misuse of Hebrews 5:8. I suggest you check this in the Greek, and then post back here.
 
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