Really I am not sure, but I have a not so dogmatic opinion. (by that I mean I am not sure of my belief, but I am sure He did not feel those desires)
I believe what it is saying is this. As you know we are all tempted in different things. For me it is certain things and perhaps you others. However just because I am tempted I am not always feeling the desire. For instance someone might come to me and say let's go smoke a joint. They have tempted me, from the standpoint of a temptation, but I feel nothing. I have no battle, I have no desire, it is nothing to me, yet one could say I was tempted.
I think the same is with the Lord. He was tempted, but had absolutely no desire. James 1:14 He felt nothing to the temptation because there was no lust in Him and His only desire was the Father's will.
Yet at the same time He suffered, not the desires of temptations, but the sufferings because he withstood them. He was mocked, and suffered hunger, and suffered physical hurts as well as mental which brought weeping and finally the sufferings of the cross and being forsaken by the Father.
I do not believe it means he actually felt any desire even in the flesh or any other way to do sin of any kind.