Skandelon
<b>Moderator</b>
I did understand that you did NOT hold this view, but that you did affirm the need of some "lessor" type of inward working so as to enable a faith response. I don't necessarily disagree with that view, I just think that the inward change is a direct result of the outward/normative means, not an additional working.I do not believe the inner working is regenerating or giving of new desires because of being given a new nature. I'm not sure if that was part of what you were getting at before but I do not ascribe to that view.
And I agree that is needed, in that mankind wouldn't understand the mysteries of the gospel had the gospel not been sent. Mankind wouldn't have understood the plan of redemption without the special revelation of God, so I affirm the NEED for God's revelation. However, I just believe that the means God chose to meet that need of mankind was accomplished through the normative/outward means of apostolic inspiration of scripture, the church, and the HS's indwelling and guiding of those who believe in His inspired revelation. IOW, I believe God must work inwardly to help man understand, but I believe He always accomplishes this through his appointed means.Mine is that the inner working is the Spirit of God is the revealing or making known, those spiritual truths that man would not grasp by his own intellect or normal process of obtaining and evaluating information
So, to compare. When a 18 year old lost kid is confused about the scriptures and seeking answers is approached by a minister and lead to repentance and faith. You MIGHT say, "Had the Holy Spirit not inwardly worked to give the kid understanding he couldn't have come to faith." Where as I would say, "The Holy Spirit inspired the gospel, indwells the minister, prompts the minister to go, so if the kid doesn't believe its not the Holy Spirit's fault, its the kids."
If the means the HS used (gospel, messenger, church) doesn't work it doesn't mean those means are insufficient, it just means the person is resisting the clear revelation and thus are accountable for it. If the kid does accept then credit goes to the HS because he brought the means through which faith and repentance were granted. Make sense? I'm not asking for agreement, just that you see the distinction as I see it.
I agree, and Christ accomplished that through a blinding light and later sending Ananias, a messenger. He didn't just "flip a switch" so to speak so that Paul magically understands something he couldn't understand before (not saying that is your view, but just the simplest way I know how to describe that view). He has a messenger explain it so that Paul can understand it. He sent the sign so that he would believe the messenger. All outward/normative means.Basically as I stated regarding Paul.. Christ had to put 2 and 2 together so he could see what it was he did not see for himself
I do have a question on this point: How is it that the natural men described by Paul in Romans 1 could "know God" and "clearly see and understand his divine nature and eternal qualities" by merely seeing His creation and know right from wrong through their inherent conscience, but somehow can't understand a clear explanation of what Christ did for them on the Cross when spoken in simple terms in their very own language?Now a good question is why can the natural man not perceive these things?
It is due to our sin nature. Everything man does is filtered through this and as such man is decidedly 'bent' toward sin (thus we will sin). This nature distorts everything, much like a pencil in a glass of water. All information, through the varied ways we perceive and understand the world around us (5 senses +1, intellect) are filtered through that nature and thus always, to some extent or another, distorted.
I know there are several passages which indicate that some can't understand or accept the gospel, but those passages are in reference to Israel who the gospel is being hidden from. They are being sent a "spirit of stupor" and blinded from the gospel truth "lest they repent and are healed." This is a temporary condition and redemptive in purpose, not a condition of mankind from birth.
Again, I don't think we disagree on this principle. I think we only disagree as to the way (means) in which God has chosen to 'open the eyes.'If we as believers need the guidance of the Spirit of God in order to know much less be 'lead into all truth', and that we need him to 'open the eyes of our understanding' as Paul says.. how much more so does the ungodly who do not have the Spirit of God in them
For example, have you seen the Charlton Heston version of The Ten Commandments, where Moses goes to Pharaoh and demands freedom for Israel? Remember the scene where after one of the plagues that Pharaoh is contemplating letting them go when a woman whispers in his ear, "Don't let him convince you with magic tricks," and the narrator says something like, "God used a woman to hardened Pharaoh's heart...." The means were a woman whispering in his ears, but ultimately it was God's will to blind Pharaoh for a time from the truth, so as to accomplish the Passover. In the same way, God hardens Israel for a time to accomplish the real Passover. I think he hardens and opens men's hearts through "normative" means simply because that seems to be his mode of operation throughout all of scripture. Sometimes it explains it in more detail than others, but I think God is consistent in the manner in which he deal with us, so when it says "God hardened him" or "God opened his eyes" or whatever, I think it means God worked through His normal means to accomplish that, but we should still recognize it as God's work.
Thanks for taking the time to do that. I do understand your view and as I explained, I'm not sure we disagree in principle, but just in practice.Anyway.. maybe that makes my position more clear.. maybe not.. but in either case.. there it is. (sorry, as I know it will derail you thread.. maybe just shoot me a mail and we can do it that way if you wish)