Debate Poll: Did Leighton Flowers actually exegete Rom. 9 in his debate w/ Dr. White?

[Greektim]

In case you haven't seen it yet, here is the debate: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zbEnNiIlujw

What do you think?

My opinion is that no he did not exegete the text in the traditional sense. Some might call what he did eisogesis. However, my slant is that he simply applied a deductive argument and hoped people would make the parallel case for themselves. However, exegesis is more of an inductive exercise. I actually had my Greek text opened for White's presentation. It was not needed w/ Flowers b/c he didn't really comment on the previous context, grammar, or syntax of the passage in question.

 

[Iconoclast]

that's why everyone felt he was a no show in the debate.

you go to with the bait and you don't work through the passage that's what Dr White was telling them we don't do that with the Trinity we don't do that with any of the teaching why you doing it with Romans 9

 

[Iconoclast]

he use the occasion to present a complete novelty and promote his new book whatever it is

 

[Yeshua1]

In case you haven't seen it yet, here is the debate: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zbEnNiIlujw

What do you think?

My opinion is that no he did not exegete the text in the traditional sense. Some might call what he did eisogesis. However, my slant is that he simply applied a deductive argument and hoped people would make the parallel case for themselves. However, exegesis is more of an inductive exercise. I actually had my Greek text opened for White's presentation. It was not needed w/ Flowers b/c he didn't really comment on the previous context, grammar, or syntax of the passage in question.

Is our Brother still stuck then on his views that God had a special dealings with the jews of time of Christ, as he did a unique hardening to them, but cannot use their experiences to validate anything one way or another, as that was a one time event in history?

 

[Greektim]

Is our Brother still stuck then on his views that God had a special dealings with the jews of time of Christ, as he did a unique hardening to them, but cannot use their experiences to validate anything one way or another, as that was a one time event in history?

Basically, yes.

 

[Yeshua1]

Basically, yes.

Which makes no biblical sense though, as sinners would be the same state regardless of which period in history!