Perhaps we should quote the actual text. "For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren. Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified:..."
Do you see where is says "for whom He did foreknow?" This passage teaches that He calls them. It does NOT teach that He doesn't call everyone. Neither does it teach that everyone who is called is justified. The word "everyone" that you use does not even appear in the passage.
Since you quoted the text, I would think you would read it. Notice (in the text) that those whom he called end up glorified. There is no person (according to the text) who is called but not justified and glorified.
In 1 Cor 1:2, the difference between the saved and unsaved is the call.
Actually, they were ALL "called to be saints" but only those who, in response "called on the name of Christ" were saved.
First, notice how you take liberty to change my words. I did not say 1 Cor 1:2. You added that. (I think you treat the words of Scripture the same way too often ... as things you can change to fit your goals).
The verses in question are verses 23-24: but we preach Christ crucified, to Jews a stumbling block and to Gentiles foolishness, 24 but to those who are the called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God.
Notice the groups of people and the responses:
Jews -- Stumblingblock
Greeks -- foolishness
Called (both Jews and Greeks) -- Christ the power and wisdom of God.
So again, think carefully here (though it is pretty obvious).
There are three groups: uncalled Jews, uncalled Gentiles, called Jews and Gentiles. Only one group accepts Christ for what he is and they are the group designated as called.
Is that why Calvies are always asking "Why do some respond and some not when the same message is preached?"
No, we are asking how you explain it. The question is not for our benefit. We know the answer. The question points out the inconsistency in your position that you have no real answer for.
Granted, these are points that may come across more or less powerfully. But there is no different message for some ("effectual call") than for others.
Exactly the point. The message is the same. The difference is in what God does in the individual.
I thought scripture said that the word never returns void but always accomplishes God's purposes.
It does.
The problem here is that you don't understand God's purposes. If one hears and is saved and another hears the same thing and isn't, the ineffectuality is not with God but with understanding His purposes.
No, there is no ineffectuality. The purpose of God is not to save everyone. The gospel also hardens people, as we see in the Bible. Therefore, God's purposes are to save some and harden others, and the word always accomplishes those purposes.
What you appear not to understand is that God wants all to be saved, but you think He preaches the gospel/calls only so that the elect can be saved.
No, I understand that perfectly. But what I don't do is ignore or change the passages that fill out the full picture of that.