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Defence of John 7:53 - John 8:11.

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
We have the texts handed down from the first century originals. The tenet being all of our 66 books.
The Critical, majority, Bzt, and even the TR texts all reflect those originals to high degree, enough so to have confidence in using any of them as text sources for a translation
 

37818

Well-Known Member
Papyrus 66 and Codex Sinaiticus both have an original textual mark between John 7:52 and John 8:12.

It is suggested to be a marker for John 7:53 - John 8:11 original text.
 
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Conan

Well-Known Member
Who said I was stuck.
You did. See your words below.

You and 37818 seem to think you have the correct answer and I am saying that you cannot know any more that those that think differently than you do.

You can learn about the subject and make your own informed decisions.

They trust the data they have and would say the data you have is wrong or at least not conclusive.
So you learn about the subject for yourself instead of not making a decision because there are variations.


But as I have said before, you do not have the autographs so either way is just a best guess. You may not like that answer but at least it is an honest look at the situation.
Are you disputing we don't have the Originals in John 1:1-17? All the witnesses agree. There is not really a real variation until verse 1:18.
Two manuscripts, of the "western text" do have a variant. Codex's Beza and Sinaiticus. But no one picks those two manuscripts in Text or Translation.
How can you say we don't have the Original Text in John 1:1-17? Those 2 Codex's tripping you up? They trip no one else up?
 

Silverhair

Well-Known Member
You can learn about the subject and make your own informed decisions.
And who say I have not?
So you learn about the subject for yourself instead of not making a decision because there are variations.
Did i say I had not made a decision?
Are you disputing we don't have the Originals in John 1:1-17? All the witnesses agree. There is not really a real variation until verse 1:18.
Two manuscripts, of the "western text" do have a variant. Codex's Beza and Sinaiticus. But no one picks those two manuscripts in Text or Translation.
How can you say we don't have the Original Text in John 1:1-17? Those 2 Codex's tripping you up? They trip no one else up?

Are they the autographs?

Strange that you have to have everyone agree with you.

But as I have said before, you do not have the autographs so either way is just a best guess. You may not like that answer but at least it is an honest look at the situation.
 

Silverhair

Well-Known Member
You know we no longer have the autographs.
We do have their texts. Which didn't come from nowhere.

But which texts? The ones with Mar 16:9-20, John 7:53 - John 8:11 or the ones without.

It still comes down to which texts the scholars trust as being the best. A guess.

I am sorry that you and Conan are so hung up on this but you are beating a dead horse.

Those two sections of text, in or out, do not impact my trust in the bible. But they do seem to have quite an impact on yours.
 

Silverhair

Well-Known Member
Acknowledging or denying text being God's word.


They don't believe those texts are original to those books and/or being God's word.

How are they denying God's word if they do not think those texts should be in God's word? Would they not say you are just adding to His word?

It still comes down to a judgement call as we do not have the autographs.
 

37818

Well-Known Member
@Silverhair,
Both (John 7:53 - John 8:11) and (Mark 16:9-20) has been part of the Greek TR as the word of God since Tyndale translated the New Testament into English.
 
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