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Descended into hell

Discussion in '2000-02 Archive' started by Aaron, Nov 10, 2002.

  1. Frogman

    Frogman <img src="http://www.churches.net/churches/fubc/Fr

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    I don't have my Bible with me, if I am wrong correct me, there are never place for hard feelings in studying and discussing the Word of God. However, I believe the Scripture says He preached to the spirits in prison. In my studies I have found this to be the same Greek word used by Christ when admonishing the Desciples to 'watch and pray' This word having in view a period of watching; a guarding etc.

    as I said, I may be wrong, but I do not believe for a minute Christ descended into the pit of Hell for the purpose of preaching to those condemned, I believe the reference is rather speaking to the time when the Spirit of Christ preached righteousness through Noah, etc. He had no reason to offer to those who died in unbelief, a free salvation.

    I believe when Christ uttered 'It is finished' he entered into the Holy of Holies, (with the Blood of the Lamb of God and poured it upon the mercy seat) This I believe was accomplished prior to His bodily resurrection.

    God Bless.
    Bro. Dallas
     
  2. blackbird

    blackbird Active Member

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    Jesus preached salvation from judgment through the lips of Noah--right before Noah got on board that ark!!

    To preach the same message again--this time to all of the God deniers in Noah's day would contridict the statement---"Today is the day of salvation. Tomorrow we know not!"

    Your friend,
    Blackbird
     
  3. Aaron

    Aaron Member
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    Again, the passage about Christ preaching to spirits in prison has nothing to do whatever with His descent into hell.

    Every evangelist preaches to spirits in prison.
     
  4. wopik

    wopik New Member

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    How could Jesus be in hell and paradise at the same time. Jesus told the thief on the cross: "...today shall you be with me in paradise" (Lk. 23:43).

    Of course, if you move the comma, it could also read: "Truly I say to you today, you shall be with me in paradise." The comma goes where ever your theology thinks it goes.
     
  5. Aaron

    Aaron Member
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  6. John3v36

    John3v36 New Member

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    You find when Jesus was on the cross that He told the thief that to day you will be with me in paradise. But 3 days latter He told Mary do not touch me for I have not ascended to my Father. Where was he for 3 day? We know he was not with the Father at that time.

    When Jesus talked about the rich man and Lazarus one went to hell the other went to Abraham’s bosom. This is where Jesus went for those 3 day as it says in 1 Peter 3:19 He “went and preached to the sprits in prison.” Now it had nothing to do with our salvation. Our salvation was completed on the cross. But before Christ die on the cross the soul where waiting to be redeemed. After the cross we go directly to be with Christ who is at the right hand of the father.

    [​IMG] Saint John

    [​IMG]
     
  7. mountainrun

    mountainrun New Member

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    Looks like it's time to jump in, once again, with the clarification that NO ONE has yet gone to hell.
    It's Hades.
    Where Paradise once was.
    The Paradise where Abraham and Lazarus were found.
    {It's now in Heaven.}
    The unsaved still go to Hades.
    The undesirable side where the rich man of Jesus story is.
    Hell is found in Rev. 21.
    Hades and death are cast into Hell at that point.

    SOOO...Jesus did NOT descend into Hell.
    He descended into Hades.
    The Paradise side of Hades.
    With the criminal who was crucified with Him.

    Let's get our doctrine correct if we're going to argue about it.

    MR
     
  8. romanbear

    romanbear New Member

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    Hi everyone; [​IMG]
    I'm new here and not sure weather or not you all will appreciate what I have to add to this conversation.I'm just a layman but student of the scriptures.Quite a few years ago I read an apcryphal book called the gospel of Nicodemus.This was at one time part of the Bible it tells of a decent in to hell by Christ. Weather true or not, I don't know.I think that maybe this is where the idea comes from. [​IMG]
    Romanbear
    Peace
     
  9. rsr

    rsr <b> 7,000 posts club</b>
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    So far as I know, the Gospel of Nicodemus was not a part of the canon; it is not among the books chosen by Athanasius in 367 and has not been canonical since then. It is believed to be from the fourth century.

    However, it may explain how the "descended to hell" reference got into the creed.

    [ November 24, 2002, 06:05 PM: Message edited by: rsr ]
     
  10. preacher

    preacher New Member

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    Please forgive me if I missed a post in all of these, but if Christ never descended into hell then how did he take the "keys" of death & HELL?

    Revelation 1:18 I [am] he that liveth, and was dead; and, behold, I am alive for evermore, Amen; and have the keys of hell and of death.
     
  11. John3v36

    John3v36 New Member

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    Lets see it say in:

    Strong's Lexicon
    86 haides hah'-dace from 1 (as negative particle) and 1492; properly, unseen, i.e. "Hades" or the place (state) of departed souls:--grave, hell.

    So Hades & Hell Some-o Same-o.

    I would seem our doctrine is correct.

    [​IMG] Saint John

    :thumbs
    [​IMG]
    [​IMG]
     
  12. Frogman

    Frogman <img src="http://www.churches.net/churches/fubc/Fr

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    Jesus uttered the words "It is finished" not because he then had to descend into hell and take from satan the keys of that place.

    God always has held the keys to death and hell.
    In Revelation death and hell will give up their dead, at the second resurrection, then after judgement those (not being found in the Lamb's book of life) will be cast into the Lake of Fire where the beast and false prophet will have been for a thousand years, (during the time of the reign of Christ on the throne of David in Jerusalem).

    Immediately after stating "It is finished" the Bible says Jesus gave up the ghost. At this time, prior to the resurrection he entered into the holy of holies and sprinkled the shed blood upon the mercy seat of God. Just before doing this, the atonement was complete, the reconciliation fulfilled.

    At no time is Christ required to descend into hell and engage in any type of combat with satan. The work of righteousness is a work completed by Christ and in payment to the Father with the view of redeeming the lost, it is not a payment rendered to satan for sin, but required wherein the righteousness of God is revealed in His Son Christ Jesus. This revelation of the righteousness of God was completed in Christ while in the world (John 17) and the atonement was made upon the mercy seat immediately at the death of Christ.

    Revelation 14 tells us those who will be consigned to an eternal torment will receive this torment in the presence of the Lamb of God and of His holy angels.

    David proclaims there is no place, hell included to where man may seek as a hiding place from the presence of God.

    To view it necessary for the saviour of the world, God's only Begotten Son to have descended into hell and meet the devil in some sort of hand to hand combat reduces the truth and message of the Gospel to no more than the present day consumer society attempts to sell drama into the work which Christ performed of righteousness while on the earth.

    Never did God have in view a purpose for Christ to physically descend into the pit in order to justify the redemption of sinners. If the work Christ offered of His life and the substitutional sacrifice he offered at the cross were not sufficient, he could not have entered into the holy of holies and sprinkled that Blood that speaks better things than the blood of Abel. When viewed like this the resurrection is correctly viewed as the 'firstfruits' the wave offering to show to those (believers) the acceptance of God of the sacrifice, the sprinkling of the Blood performed through His Son.

    Otherwise, shows satan to be the one to whom the payment is made because of Sin.

    God Bless.
    Bro. Dallas
     
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