So your saying that man sins due to the flesh and not due to the sin nature?jdlongmire said:Incorrect - if Mary's egg was used, Jesus would have been tainted by the sin of Man.
The flesh like all creation is fallen. Jesus was not in a glorified body but like yours and mine; able to get sick, hurt, hunger, thirst, and even die.
or the ESV:Hbr 4:15 For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as [we are, yet] without sin.
He clothed himself in flesh, not some special protective flesh that is not like the rest of His creation but like unto His creation. Otherwise how can not we have a High Priest who is able to sympathize with our weakness unless He Himself has partook and overcome them.For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but one who in every respect has been tempted as we are, yet without sin.
So you think a person mudered has not died?? Please elaborate.Christ was murdered and did not inherit the wages of sin.
Sin is not passed through the flesh and that verse does not validate your point.Sin is passed through the flesh. Again:
Psalm 51:5
Behold, I was brought forth in iniquity, And in sin my mother conceived me.
The only thing it states is that man even at conception is IN sin.
Another view can be seen from the same passage (which I already gave):
Yes, you are a sinner through the transmission of the sin by the father. Without a father there is no creation of a child thus it is concieved IN or already in sin. Why, because the sin nature was passed on AT conception and therefore he was concieved already in sin.
Why do you believe Jesus had to be born of a virgin?
If to fulfill prophesy, still why was it necessary?
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