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Featured Did God translate the 1611 edition of the KJV?

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Logos1560, May 2, 2022.

  1. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    He worked thru the 1611 Kjv translators exactly same amount as he did those on the Geneva, or later on Nas/esv/Nkjv!
     
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  2. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    The Apostles took over from the LLX some renderings, as they had the inspiration afforded unto them by the Holy Spirit to do such, and to always make the correct choices, something none after them had available! God also has worked among MV translators to get out the word of God to us now in Nas/esv and Nkjv!
     
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  3. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    Which meant that in certain passages the Kjv would "correct and trump" even the Holy Spirit!
     
  4. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    Why did it seem that at times even what the majority of the renderings chosen by the 1611 team got overridden in the end product?
     
  5. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    Seems like the Kjvo viewpoint literally has no legs to stand upon!
     
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  6. Dr. Bob

    Dr. Bob Administrator
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    That is the whole premise of that "only sect" and condemned as an attack on the doctrine of inspiration
     
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  7. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    Very strange that God would wait until 1611 to correct and to give us his true bible, did he not care to make sure that we had a valid bible to use until then?
     
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  8. Salty

    Salty 20,000 Posts Club
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    Did God translate the 1611 edition of the KJV?

    Short answer NO
     
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  9. Piper

    Piper Active Member
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    Did God translate the 1611 edition of the KJV?
    Well, that is a question we would have to do some definitions on. Did God ordain it? Yes.
    Could we say that he "Inspired" it, or "theopneustos"ed it (literally expired, breathed out)? The scriptures only claim that for the autographs. So, no.

    Translated as in, did he give life and breath and everything to the translaters, and did he ordain that they do it the way they did, errors and all? In my Absolute Sovereignty of God worldview, I say yes. So, the errors were ordained. Sounds like double speak, I know.

    But to the colloquial question, did God translate it? No.
     
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