Seems to me that the OP placed a question to the BB that is well worthy of discussion.
[snipped]
Perhaps you can find that single Scripture that states that God poured out some measure of wrath upon His Son as satisfactory payment for sin.
I haven't found one, and frankly am too tired to look for one.
So PROVE by Scriptures you view.
For in them is the truth.
I actually did think it a topic worthy of discussion, it is something I was studying on my own, and was surprised at the lack of interest (some even indicated it was an old topic...I suppose not worthy of their interest. What I find amazing is that some strongly disagree and treasure their tradition (to the point of degrading other people) yet cannot provide one single passage that proves their view. It is not even a matter of interpretation. It's a matter of explanation, leaning on human understanding, and biblical illiteracy. Unfortunately, there are too many books out there telling people what to believe that some don't actually get around to scripture.
Here are some interesting (using that word subjectively) observations.
The idea that God “turns his back” on Jesus at the cross is denied by the very psalm Jesus quotes to express his identification with sinners. The psalmist praises God because, despite his cry of dereliction, God has NOT forsaken his servant or turned his back on him: “For He has not despised nor abhorred the affliction of the afflicted; Nor has He hidden His face from him;
But when he cried to Him for help, He heard (Ps. 22:24).”
The implication that the relationship between Father and Son has remained intact is reinforced by the cry “Father, into your hands I commit my spirit (Luke 23:46; Ps. 31:5). Which of course, brings us to Psalm 31:22: “As for me,I said in my alarm, ‘I am cut off from before Your eyes’; Nevertheless You heard the voice of my supplications when I cried to You.”
What is amazing is that in the midst of the suffering, in the midst of the agony, when Jesus is dying on the cross for me, he cried out with the words of the psalmist to express the faith that God is faithful to redeem, that God does not nor ever would abandon his Servant (Ps. 22; 31, and see also Ps. 16:10 and of course Luke’s quote of the Psalm in Acts 2).
Then of course there are the passages that describe a mutual indwelling of the Father and Son – “I am in the Father and the Father is in me” (John 14:10). “The Father and I are one” (John 10:30). Perhaps more importantly – “Yet I am not alone because the Father is with me” (John 16:32).
Another interesting note (again, using “interesting” subjectively) is the truth that NT authors quoted the first lines of OT scriptures instead of giving chapter and verse references (which, of course, didn’t exist at that time). We cannot understand the New Testament divorced from the Old, yet this is exactly what some try to do. They take the quote “My God, My God, why have you forsaken me” and conclude that the Father abandoned the Son (which is exactly the opposite of what Psalm 22 points towards).
I, agedman, am also interested in knowing what verses support the conclusions of a separation on the cross. It seems that some hold close that conclusion, so close that they resort to personal attack when they can’t find biblical support. But surely, as mine seems a minority view here, someone can provide at least one verse that supports their position. I have provided many stating that God will not abandon his Righteous One, is there at least one passage stating he will?
Imagine the depth of scripture you would find if you simply believed that the Old Testament is about Jesus. Imagine actually believing that Psalm 22 and Psalm 31 (which were quoted on the cross) actually reflected a reality that God will never abandon Jesus and therefore those of us in Christ will never be abandoned. Just try it out…read the two Psalms as if they actually applied to Jesus (I assure you they do) and then see if you can reconcile that scripture with the notion that the Father abandoned the Son.