did Jesus rise on the first day of the week?

The biggest problems I see with this is first, that they bought spices after the Sabbath and arrived before it was light.

They couldn't stop by the all night spice store, because there weren't any. It's possible that she bought some on the first day of the week before it was daylight, but in light of Matt 28:1 (see below), I think it is highly unlikely.
The biggest argument against it is Friday and Saturday would be skipped and not mentioned.

Next, Matt 28:1 uses the plural for Sabbath, indicating more than one. This would easily explain how they could have purchased the spices after the fisrt sabbath, prepared them, rested on the second sabbath, then been there before daylight on the first day of the week.

 

Not an "all night spice store", but remember, the sabbath ends at sundown, not nightfall. So it's possible for people to sell something after the sabbath, yet not in the middle of the night. I know some Jewish businesses will open for a while on Saturday night, depending on what it is.

I don't see any plural in Matt. 28:1 in my Bible. If you insist the word is, then the only thing it could refer to is both weekly and annual sabbath occurring the same time. After all, the beginning of one day can only be the end of one day. Two days never end at the same time. There is only one end. And no days inbetween two sabbaths, for them to prepare the spices "after" one sabbath and "before" the other, because the sabbath day is one unit being referred to. (else it would say "after the last sabbath".) However, one day can be two kinds of sabbath.

It does seem Friday and Saturday are skipped as I pointed out, and it goes from Crucifixion to dual ["high"] Sabbath day, to Sunday. So the Crucifixion must have been the Friday.

 

My belief is this:

-Jesus was crucified on Thursday, in the morning which was 14th day of Abib month.

-Jesus died around 15:00-15:30 on the 14th Abib month, Thursday.
This was the exact time of killing Passover lamb.

- When they buried Jesus, it became almost the Sabbath, which means the High Sabbath during the Days of Unleavened Bread. This means that the time was almost 18:00 on the 14th Abib by Roman Calendar, but by Jewish Calendar it was start of 15th Abib ( 0 hours).

- Jesus slept in the tomb during Thursday night ( 15th Abib)
- next day ( Friday) was still 15th Abib and High Sabbath.

- Friday night was 16th Abib and was already Regular Sabbath, which means Saturday by Jewish Calendar. Jesus slept in the tomb.

- until Saturday afternoon 18:00, it was still Regular Sabbath and was 17th Abib, Jesus slept there in the tomb.

- Saturday evening after 18:00 hrs, it was 18th Abib and the first day of the week already. Therefore women could arrange the perfumes by asking their husbands.
- Jesus slept still in the tomb until the very early morning like 03:00- 04:00 a.m.
He was resurrected before the early morning, on 18th Abib, which was the first day of the week (Sunday).
Therefore He fulfilled prophesy of 3 days and 3 nights in the tomb.

I think Jewish calendar is more Biblical than any other one, because God created the universe in the darkness and created the light later.
If we count the day break first, then historically One Half day of the first day is left without being counted.
The key to understand this is to believe there was 2 Sabbath days are involved while Jesus was in the tomb.

 

It's plural twice. One is for Sabbath, the other for Week.

 

"Inclusive reconning".

That means that Luke 23 is literally true - Sunday late afternoon is literally the 3rd day SINCE the crucifixion event described in Luke 23.

In Christ,

Bob

 

Can we please resuscitate this thread? There are so many question not answered yet!

One may begin from its beginning to reconsider each statement slowly and thoroughly.

One remark is standing out for me. It was the one where someone asked for what? Why would it matter to find the truth as to when and on which day Jesus had risen from the dead? The answer given in that remark was, that what really matters is the fact that Jesus had risen from the dead.

I would like to take this same statement and formulate it a bit more "according to the Scriptures", so that one may find that it ALSO matters greatly, the very fact that Jesus "rose the third day ACCORDING TO THE SCRIPTURES"! That was the reason for Paul to declare he didn't proclaim nonsense, but that which he "received ... according to the Scriptures".
If Christ rose not from the dead "according to the Scriptures", He rose not at all, for He only would rise from the dead, "according to the Scriptures" -- that's how we know He is faithful, and indeed had been faithful to the Word of God. And so also we may rest assured it is not nonsense we, believe - the very fact that Christ rose from the dead, and, "that He rose, the third day according to the Scriptures"!

The truth as to when and on which day Christ rose from the dead is God's 'pro-phecy' (His eternal Word of Oath) come true - 'fulfilled'! It matters!

 

May I give a classic example of why "There is much confusion regarding the four different Resurrection accounts"? (- By Eric B)

Can anyone see it -- my 'example'? It is inside this very statement!

 

It is this: The very ASSUMPTION there are four 'resurrection accounts'! First something (untrue) is taken for granted and for axiomatic and proven first principle of logic; then, the assumption is made on ground of that first (false) assumption, that there are so many contradictions or 'so much confusion'.

The assumption is: There are 'FOUR RESURRECTION ACCOUNTS'.

Get this first assumption out of the way first; first find the truth "according to the Scriptures" as far as the NUMBER of 'accounts' is concerned, and much of the difficulty to understand, vanishes!

There is only ONE 'Resurrection account' in all of Scripture -- only one record of the literal, physical event of Jesus actually rising from the dead. And that one account, is by implication only -- as Eliyahoo has correctly observed, that there is no account in so many words of Jesus' resurrection in there, namely, in that one account of Matthew 28:1-4.

Now this fact is most meaningful, for it implies the real event is eventually described in verbal terms, in the following pericope in that section of Matthew, that is, in verses 5 further! It means we have actually TWO events recorded by Matthew's Gospel - the first of the actual resurrection by implication; and the second the evnt or incident of it's telling, when the angel TOLD the women, what HAD happened. Matthew tells NOTHING of what the women had SEEN; he only records what they had been TOLD!

Two and different EVENTS: Resurrection and being informed OF the resurrection; therefore two and different TIMES and two and different DAYS, involved, "Sabbath", namely, "when suddenly there was a great earthquake ...", and, the next morning of the First Day of the week --IMPLIED-- "And the angel answered and told the women ...".

 

I know I had promised to get back to this thread in detail, but I was not able to do it. First I had no time; then I forgot it, and now again I have no time, due to fairly detailed surgery, starting in about 8 hours. So I do apologize for not getting back to all of you. And thanks for all the prayers from BB Members, although this is not the correct forum. God willing, I'll be back here in about three weeks.

In His grace,
Ed

 

Ed,

I dont know you very well but I do hope your surgery will go very well.

Claudia

 

I have typed, wrongly: "Now this fact is most meaningful, for it implies the real event is eventually described". It should not be, "IS, eventually described...", but ,'AS, eventually described...'; or better still, 'AS EVENTUALLY EXPLAINED'!
Sorry, for that certainly must have caused 'much confusion'!

 

Hope everything goes well, and you back soon!

 

Here's another reason for it having been two days : in Matthew 28 verses 1 to 4 the Sabbath (Saturday); and in verses 5 further the First Day of the week (Sunday). ...

Jesus "first appeared to Mary Magdalene", says Mark 16:9. Now we know about that first appearance "as the Risen One" (anastas de), from John, who described it in detail in chapter 20 from verse 11 onwards. Jesus' first appearance must have been witnessed by the two angels whom Mary had seen inside the grave and with whom she had talked. It happened the time the gardener should begin work, which is sunrise (6 am).

In Matthew, we read that Jesus appeared to several women while on their way into Jerusalem. This is the SECOND and only other case of it being recorded that Jesus appeared to any women -- it could not have been Jesus' first appearance. Circumstances, the number of women, and the number of angels, clearly imply the ABSENSE of Mary Magdalene.

But Mary Magdalene and the other Mary "went to look at the grave" in verse 1! In Matthew 1 Mary is the main actress; in verse 5 she's nowhere!
It cannot be the same day; it cannot be the same occurrence!

 

And their are other and unambiguous reasons and deductions why it had to be two days, the first the Sabbath of Jesus' resurrection; the second the Sunday of Jesus' first appearances.

But I would like to first return to what for Eliyahoo was a main point. I'll first return to the forum to pick up his words.

 

Sorry once more; it was mman's post:

"The biggest problems I see with this is first, that they bought spices after the Sabbath and arrived before it was light.

They couldn't stop by the all night spice store, because there weren't any. It's possible that she bought some on the first day of the week before it was daylight, but in light of Matt 28:1 (see below), I think it is highly unlikely."

First, it should be no problem at all if the women made more than one trip,
One just after sunset Saturday evening (Mk16:1) to buy spices (obviously for Salome who hadn't been at the funeral), naturally to return home to 'prepare' it or make it ready (I only suggest); and a
Second, according to Mark 16 verse 2, "early morning before sunrise", still not believing, only to flee in terror after hearing that Peter had to meet Jesus in Galilee. "They told nobody anything for fear!"

So there's no problem why the women (only the three) could have "bought spices after the Sabbath and arrived before it was light". They also could have stopped by the after-Sabbath-store for spices, because special seasonal arrangements were in place for such incidents.

It's not possible that Mary bought some on the first day of the week before it was daylight, because that's exactly the time she must have been at the grave already, where she still was standing weeping, until she saw Jesus and confused Him for the gardener. It's also not possible, because this was when Mary was on her own, and not in the company of other women.