In another thread, I pointed to writing by a scholar named Staples. In his work, he shows that the ancients would use (as I do) the term Israel to refer to the social whole of all of that genetic makeup, and Jews to refer to those who are the elect of Israel.
As some (Josephus for example) were contemporaries of Paul and of the similar background in Jewishness, it follows that when Paul used the term Israel ("All Israel will be saved") that it was total inclusive, and not just applicable to the Judean remnant.
Now, I realize that some on the BB will argue the point, but the work by Staples seems to be well thought through, and besides, with the exception of a few points, he agrees with me.