We are baptists, so the ONLY infallible and inspired source for doctrines is the Bible.period.
It is often wise to consult those who came before us, but to quote them as if that settles the question is not wise...Baptist or not.
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We are baptists, so the ONLY infallible and inspired source for doctrines is the Bible.period.
Really! good....so you can use the bible now to show how anything was spiritualizedWe are baptists, so the ONLY infallible and inspired source for doctrines is the Bible.period.
Really! good....so you can use the bible now to show how anything was spiritualized
You still have failed to explain it from scripture as you cannot back up your statement.What did you think of my point #84?
You still have failed to explain it from scripture as you cannot back up your statement.
I have asked him to show from scripture and to post where anyone has done as he made the accusations. No scripture has come forth yet. see post 84....Do you disagree with his statement?
I have asked him to show from scripture and to post where anyone has done as he made the accusations. No scripture has come forth yet. see post 84....
I think his point is that you take passages like Jeremiah 31:35-37 and claim that they have been fulfilled. No one denies that we are participating in the new covenant, "their spiritual things" (Romans 15:27). However, to say that God has "cast away his people" when Paul says quite the opposite is very wrong (Romans 11:1).
You still have failed to explain it from scripture as you cannot back up your statement.
One can be holding to a literal viewpoint regardless understanding prophecy, and still see that God used symbolic language, and others such as metaphors and eschatological expressions without a need to resort to spiritualizing everything!
I feel your pain. However, in your posts all I saw was you putting forth your own particular dispensational scheme. I am not really sure what you wanted me to reply. I gave the Ryrie dispensations and you gave your own. End of story, to me.
Let's keep it simple - I don't like lengthy quotes of other people's writing, nor short posts that fail to make a real point.
The word translated "Covenant" occurs more than 300 times throughout the Scriptures & gives the name to the two volumes, before & after the coming of the LORD Jesus Christ. Limiting it's definition to "agreement" is a serious misunderstanding. As John wrote, "Um, linguistics is not theology."
The word translated "Dispensation" occurs 7 times only in the NC Scriptures, and only once in the sense used in dispensationalism. Eph. 1:10 "Steward" occurs about 20 times in Scripture, always referring to an employment situation. That's NOT the basis for a theological system.
A Scriptural "Covenant" is vastly more than an agreement. The expression "I will establish my covenant" occurs 8 times in the OC. The wording implies a pre-existing covenant, & is generally unconditional. Even in human covenants, it is made by the greater to the lesser party as a Promise, of Protection & Peace. See the account of the Gibeonites. Joshua 9, where they ask Joshua to make a league/treaty/covenant with them.
Notice the way the New Covenant is introduced in Jeremiah 31:31, quoted in Hebrews 8 -
31 “Behold, the days are coming, says the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah— 32 not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt, My covenant which they broke, though I was a husband to them, says the Lord. 33 But this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, says the Lord: I will put My law in their minds, and write it on their hearts; and I will be their God, and they shall be My people.
That covenant expression "their God...my people" occurs throughout Scripture in various forms, not just to the people of Israel, but to the church of Corinth & to all the redeemed in the NH&NE for all eternity.
The NT opens with what amounts to a declaration of God's covenant promises to Abraham & David. Mat. 1. The songs of Mary & Zachariah, the angels & Simeon, in Luke 1 & 2 are of God fulfilling his (covenant) promises by the incarnation.
NOT a two-way agreement but the fulfilment of the Covenant promises of God in the LORD Jesus Christ.
Note the conditional "old" Covenant promise of Exodus 19:
5 Now therefore, if you will indeed obey My voice and keep My covenant, then you shall be a special treasure to Me above all people; for all the earth is Mine. 6 And you shall be to Me a kingdom of priests and a holy nation.’
Is that a futile covenant, a promise that God made that the subjects could NEVER fulfill? Not at all. It is an expression of the eternal Covenant made by Father & Son to be fulfilled by the perfect obedience of the Son as the Son of man, for man - for the elect & redeemed people of God. That covenant needs no imperfect future millennium for its fulfilment.
Countless Israelite saints walked with God by faith, & were blessed by that Covenant relationship. Hebrews 11 is a partial list.
In the present New Covenant "dispensation" God is using the New Covenant Gospel of his Son, in the power of his Holy Spirit to call his redeemed people for their eternal dwelling in the NH&NE.
I asked you clearly if you believed the Catholic doctrine in post #134, and you didn't answer. I can't read your mind.I am NOT standing up for it. You are CLEARLY missing my point.
What's wrong with arguing with linguistics? It's often a great help to Bible interpretation, and its usage is even now being debated in the world of hermeneutics scholars. How is it my fault that you guys don't get that? If someone doesn't have an education, they can educate themselves if they are humble and ask for help.The point is you argue with linguistics and act like everything you believe is so simple.
Why the 1700s for covenant theology if it's so natural? Come on, that is a bogus argument.I was saying if it so natural why do so many not see it? If the literalness of Dispensationalism is so plain, why the 1800s?
Again, I asked you clearly in post #134 if you believed it and you didn't answer. Post after post went by with you seeming to stand up for transubstantiation. How am I supposed to know your point if you don't make it?So please don't say Im acting weird and blatantly accuse me saying i'm standing up for transubstantiation.
You'll have to be more specific. What method of mine are you standing up to?Im standing up to your method, of arguing why you are right and everyone in this camp is wrong.
Do you honestly think that your denigration and personal attacks will draw me towards your position? Frankly, you have driven me away from your position and from further interaction with you.John of Japan,
.but I know you are not looking to understand what is being offered...you have looked a bit, and turned away.
that is your call.
Just as many of us thought...not a surprise.
Of course not...you are a free moral agent.I have not forgotten your reluctance to answer on the sun, moon, and stars, until pressed...then you offered the weak idea of shooting stars?
Perhaps...but it could be your evasion and excuses that ring hollow...
I am still working through things and like the interaction....you press the issue...but then when a response is given you run for the hills.
,When I give short answers you ignore them...it was you who said..Where is the beef??? I give some beef and you flee...
John...some of my points might be....or...wait for it...you might not get it
So it is easy to dismiss the offerings than answer
You accuse me of willful ignorance of your position.You said you see no such Covenant....I posted from many who have before me and had no trouble seeing it.
You know John...when someone goes to medical school to be a DR. and it is time to learn about the complete working of the circulatory system...the heart, the lungs, the veins, arteries, capillaries...it takes time and they need to go into great detail.
If a person just picks out one part of it....in isolation...they will not get close to the whole system at all.
Well yes the remnant was saved and is being saved in every generation including Paul. How did he reject them?
I don't see your point.
Romans 11:1
I am an Israelite myself, a descendant of Abraham, from the tribe of Benjamin.
Where did anyone say God cast anyone away?I think his point is that you take passages like Jeremiah 31:35-37 and claim that they have been fulfilled. No one denies that we are participating in the new covenant, "their spiritual things" (Romans 15:27). However, to say that God has "cast away his people" when Paul says quite the opposite is very wrong (Romans 11:1).
Those who hold that AD 70 was when God forever severed any ties to israel....Where did anyone say God cast anyone away?
JoJ,For anyone who believes Icon's supercilious attack here, I have taken 13 hours of grad theology, some of which I didn't need but wanted. In the process I was required to read entire systematic theologies that taught covenant theology (one systematic theology per 2 credit course). I understand the system, am thoroughly educated in it, and reject it.
I don't recall bragging about my knowledge. I simply stated how many courses I've taken in grad theology. How is that bragging about my knowledge? I did not tell what grades I got, who the profs were (that matters in academia), what the schools were, what I learned from the courses--in other words, my knowledge. If saying what courses I took is bragging, then a resume is much more bragging. Ever written a resume?JoJ,
First of all Covenant theology starts in the late 1500s with people like Robert Rollock of Edinburgh, and reached its golden age with Flavel, Brooks, Manton and John Owen in the 1600s. Get it right.
Your constant bragging about your supposed knowledge is getting a bit wearing. Have a read of Acts 4:13 and 2 Timothy 3:7.
Then give it a rest. Or prove that you have it by getting your facts right.