Ascetic X
Well-Known Member
Many who bought the book did not buy it due to predictions about when the rapture will occur.Apparently many did, considering his book sales.
Tim LaHaye is another one.
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Many who bought the book did not buy it due to predictions about when the rapture will occur.Apparently many did, considering his book sales.
Tim LaHaye is another one.
Book sales is hardly a representation of who believes them, especially if you are including the left behind series. If you can’t figure out that the series is fiction, I can’t help you.Apparently many did, considering his book sales.
Tim LaHaye is another one.
Did or did not millions excitedly follow these two men because of what they believed and taught about the rapture?Book sales is hardly a representation of who believes them, especially if you are including the left behind series. If you can’t figure out that the series is fiction, I can’t help you.
But there are lots of best selling authors who are not really.
I didn’t. I know lots of people who didn’t. I know more who didn’t than did.Did or did not millions excitedly follow these two men because of what they believed and taught about the rapture?
Nope. We oppose him. It is not dispensational theology to predict the Rapture. In fact, I specifically warn against it in my college/seminary class, "Dispensational Theology."Dispensationilists should love this guy. For several years, he has forecast the rapture, only to have to extend the time, when the rapture didn't happen. Currently, he's expecting the rapture to happen this year, 2026, most likely this spring, or this coming fall:
![]()
Daniel 11: God's Master Plan ... Unsealed
A unique, simple, and logical explanation of Daniel 11, highlighting events preceding the rapture, the seals, and how everything fits together.daniel11truth.com
Nope.Did or did not millions excitedly follow these two men because of what they believed and taught about the rapture?
It sounds to me like marketing.Did or did not millions excitedly follow these two men because of what they believed and taught about the rapture?
Wow, I just checked out the website referred to here. It's crazy, and not strict dispensational thinking, but more someone's idea of a post-trib position, or maybe a pre-wrath position (neither of which are standard dispensationalism): says the Rapture comes after the abomination of desolations, the war with Iran is fulfilling Daniel 11:29-30, etc. etc. As a representational dispensationalist, I don't believe that stuff at all.Dispensationilists should love this guy. For several years, he has forecast the rapture, only to have to extend the time, when the rapture didn't happen. Currently, he's expecting the rapture to happen this year, 2026, most likely this spring, or this coming fall:
![]()
Daniel 11: God's Master Plan ... Unsealed
A unique, simple, and logical explanation of Daniel 11, highlighting events preceding the rapture, the seals, and how everything fits together.daniel11truth.com
People who mock the rapture of the church are also unable to give the biblical definition of the church.Did or did not millions excitedly follow these two men because of what they believed and taught about the rapture?
Very strangely, in his post #4 Alan seems to be claiming my statements (not italicized) as his (italicized). I'll just conclude that he doesn't know how to do quotes in the BB environment.
Poor Alan. All he can do is quote other people.
I would that he would answer dispensationalism with his own thinking, but so far he has not.
Right and that's the same as saying, "No dispensational theology treats a dispensation as something to be "dispensed", as defined by the Bible where Paul says, “A dispensation of the Gospel is committed to me” (I Cor. 9:17); where Paul is properly using the definition of the word 'dispensation', where he means, "the Gospel had been entrusted to him to be dispensed by him."Right and that's the same as saying, "No dispensational theology treats a dispensation as something to be "dispensed", as defined by the Bible where Paul says, “A dispensation of the Gospel is committed to me” (I Cor. 9:17); where Paul is properly using the definition of the word 'dispensation', where he means, "the Gospel had been entrusted to him to be dispensed by him."
I don't even know what you call this.Alan, or whoever he is currently quoting anonymously. (Note: we do not allow anonymous quotes in the research papers of our students. Every quote must be sourced. To do otherwise is plagiarism.)
I don't know why you keep saying this, and I don't understand what you think is being "dispensed". There is nothing in dispensationalism that talks about "dispensing" anything, and the word "dispensation" does not refer to any kind of "dispensing." On the hope that you will learn something from this, here are some definitions from one of my lectures. Note: look at the bottom for the sources of the quotes; the blue numbers are simply blue, and don't take you anywhere; that's how the BB software handles such quotes with footnotes.Right and that's the same as saying, "No dispensational theology treats a dispensation as something to be "dispensed", as defined by the Bible where Paul says, “A dispensation of the Gospel is committed to me” (I Cor. 9:17); where Paul is properly using the definition of the word 'dispensation', where he means, "the Gospel had been entrusted to him to be dispensed by him."
A quick question.I don't know why you keep saying this, and I don't understand what you think is being "dispensed". There is nothing in dispensationalism that talks about "dispensing" anything, and the word "dispensation" does not refer to any kind of "dispensing." On the hope that you will learn something from this, here are some definitions from one of my lectures. Note: look at the bottom for the sources of the quotes; the blue numbers are simply blue, and don't take you anywhere; that's how the BB software handles such quotes with footnotes.
Definitions of a Dispensation
The term “dispensation” occurs in the KJV four times (1 Cor. 9:17, Eph. 1:10, Eph. 3:2, Col. 1:25). Of these, Eph. 1:10 is quite close to the meaning of the term in dispensationalism.
C. I. Scofield defined a dispensation as a “period of time during which man is tested in respect to obedience to some specific revelation of the will of God.”[1] However, this is problematic in that the lexical meaning of the Greek word does not include the concept of a time period.
The Greek word is oikonomia (οἰκονομία), which occurs three times as “stewardship” in Luke 16:1-4. (The parable continues to v. 10.) Thus, the Greek word occurs a total of seven times in the New Testament.
Friberg’s lexicon defines this word thus: “(1) literally, relating to the task of an οἰκονόμος (steward) in household administration stewardship, management (LU 16.2); (2) figuratively; (a) of the apostolic office in God's redemptive work task, responsibility, trusteeship (CO 1.25); (b) of God's arrangements for mankind's redemption plan, arrangement, purpose (EP 3.9); 1T 1.4 may mean (divine) training, but (divine) plan is also possible.”[2]
One Bible encyclopedia defines it as “a stewardship, the management or disposition of affairs entrusted to one.” [3] The revised version of that work defines it this way: “The term refers to the action of giving out, specifically referring to God’s dealings with men. In 2 Cor. 3 Paul contrasts the brightness of Moses’ face in the giving of the OT law (v. 5) which brought death (v. 7) with the ‘greater splendor’ (v. 8) of the giving of the Spirit which brought righteousness (v. 9).”[4]
Chafer gives a better definition: “A dispensation is a specific, divine economy, a commitment from God to man of a responsibility to discharge that which God has appointed him.”[5]
Again, Charles Ryrie in our textbook gives this concise definition: “A dispensation is a distinguishable economy in the outworking of God’s purpose.”[6]
Note that Scofield’s definition is mistaken, because a dispensation is not an age. He wrote, “A dispensation is a period of time during which man is tested in respect of obedience to some specific revelation of the will of God. Seven such dispensations are distinguished in Scripture.”[7]
Distinguishing the dispensations according to a literal hermeneutic brings one to distinguish between Israel and the church. Thus, the premillennial coming of Christ becomes a logical conclusion, and a literal millennium with Christ ruling the world on the throne of David is a reality.
This brings us to these concise definitions.
A Biblical dispensation is a stewardship from God in which mankind is given a task to fulfill.
Dispensationalism is a theology in which the dispensations of the Bible are carefully delineated for the glory of God.
[1] C. I. Scofield, ed., Scofield Reference Bible (New York: Oxford U. Press, 1945), 5.
[2] Timothy Friberg, Barbara Friberg and Neva Miller, Analytical Lexicon of the Greek New Testament (Grand Rapids: Baker, 2000), 279.
[3] The International Standard Bible Encyclopedia (1915 edition), accessed through e-Sword software.
[4] Geoffrey W. Bromiley, ed., The International Standard Bible Encyclopedia, rev., Vol. 1 (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1979), 962.
[5] Lewis Sperry Chafer, Systematic Theology, Vol. VII (Dallas: Dallas Seminary Press, 1948), 122.
[6] Ryrie, 33.
[7] C. I. Scofield, Scofield Reference Bible (Oxford: Oxford University Press, 1907), 5.
Yes, obviously the dispensations each occupy time, but the time frame is much less important than the stewardship God gives to mankind in each dispensation. Innocency was pretty short, but the church has already lasted 2000 years!A quick question.
I agree with you on dispensations.
And it is important to note that salvation is through Christ in any dispensation. The just shall live by faith.
I don’t have any trouble with the aspect of time. The only reason to remove the assumption of time periods is if any dispensation runs concurrently with any other.
Yes, I do believe that there are times when the dispensations continue into the next one. For example, we still have consciences even if the dispensation of human conscience is over, and people in the millennium will be saved by faith in the crucified and risen Christ, just as we do. The stewardship/responsibility sometimes remains even when time marches on, though Law of course was fulfilled in Christ.There is no point where man has no responsibility. Is there any point where you see differences of dispensations simultaneously?
Yes, exactly right. The modern dispensationalist believes that salvation before Christ is faith in the coming Messiah, and after the cross is faith in the risen Christ.One of the biggest issues that anti-dispensationalists have, in my experience, is that there are some people who think that we are discussing how salvation is given.
Any good dispensationalist will tell you…
Acts 4:12
Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.
The question for you. The general statement for anyone who doesn’t understand the difference between dispensations and salvation.
So do we who are CT Reformed BaptistsYes, obviously the dispensations each occupy time, but the time frame is much less important than the stewardship God gives to mankind in each dispensation. Innocency was pretty short, but the church has already lasted 2000 years!
Yes, I do believe that there are times when the dispensations continue into the next one. For example, we still have consciences even if the dispensation of human conscience is over, and people in the millennium will be saved by faith in the crucified and risen Christ, just as we do. The stewardship/responsibility sometimes remains even when time marches on, though Law of course was fulfilled in Christ.
Yes, exactly right. The modern dispensationalist believes that salvation before Christ is faith in the coming Messiah, and after the cross is faith in the risen Christ.
Because, as opposed to being an etymology fallacy, the meaning as 'dispensation' is used all the way back to how it is used in the Bible, prior to the most recent advent of modernism as Dispensationalism, has to do with the stewardship of dispensing the Gospel, which is the all important Message of the New Testament Era, with regard to what the Lord uses as "the Power of God unto Salvation" and to Reveal the Mystery that the Gospel was to Come in Full Force to the Gentiles and as it says in Ephesians 3:6; "That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and Partakers of His Promise in Christ by the Gospel:".I don't know why you keep saying this, and I don't understand what you think is being "dispensed".
"It is important to notice that in the first two of these instances [ there can be no question that the Bible uses the word dispensatin in exactly the same way the dispensationalist does" (Charles Ryrie, Dispensationalism, p. 32; Eph. 1:10 & 3:2).Because, as opposed to being an etymology fallacy, the meaning as 'dispensation' is used all the way back to how it is used in the Bible,
Are you actually calling dispensationalism a "modernism"??? That term is a synonym of "liberalism," which is a total denial of the supernatural. On the contrary, dispensationalists believe that God is supernaturally working all through history, and not one single dispensationalist has turned liberal/modernist from believing the theology. We interpret the Bible literally, which liberals cannot do or they would become believers.prior to the most recent advent of modernism as Dispensationalism,
Really? So you finally say what dispensationalism is "dispensing," and you think it is the Gospel. Friend, the Bible never uses the term "dispense" in relation to the Gospel. It is always proclaimed, kerusso (κηρύσσω), never "dispensed."has to do with the stewardship of dispensing the Gospel, which is the all important Message of the New Testament Era, with regard to what the Lord uses as "the Power of God unto Salvation" and to Reveal the Mystery that the Gospel was to Come in Full Force to the Gentiles and as it says in Ephesians 3:6; "That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and Partakers of His Promise in Christ by the Gospel:".
You see, the problem is that "dispensation" actually means "stewardship," and Paul was given a stewardship of the Gospel. And it was to glorify God, as you say. But you misunderstand dispensational theology here. The dispensation of grace/the church was not given to any individual, but to all of mankind, just like each previous dispensation of the seven was given.Context before; "For though I Preach the Gospel,
I have nothing to glory of: for necessity is laid upon me;
yea, woe is unto me, if I Preach not the Gospel!
KJV
1 Corinthians 9:17;
"For if I do this thing willingly, I have a Reward:
but if against my will,
a dispensation of the Gospel is committed unto me."
Context after; 18; "What is my reward then? Verily that, when I Preach the Gospel, I may make the Gospel of Christ without charge, that I abuse not my power in the Gospel."
An administration, or stewardship, concerning the 'dispensing' of the Gospel was committed to Paul.
Not an administration, or stewardship, within which Paul was 'given new rules from God' as a challenge 'to see if he would fail' and, therefore, 'bring Glory to God'.
I completely agree, as do all dispensationalists, even hyper-dispensationalists.The Preaching of the Gospel and the Salvation of souls were what were both to bring Glory to God.