• Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

Dispensationalism and the Rapture, Pre-Darby.

Ed Edwards

<img src=/Ed.gif>
The following uses:
rapture - like a resurrection but for the living
resurrection - being raised from the dead & given
a new body

--------------------------------------------------
I will show IT IS WRITTEN:
The Anti-messiah shall reign for 7-years,
the Tribulation period.
The rapture (caught up) will follow a resurrection.
The rapture/resurrection will occur without
previous notice and before the Tribulation period
(wrath).
The rapture (caught up)/resurrection (gathering)
is at the beginning of the Tribulation period
(time of the Anti-messiah)

The Anti-messiah shall reign for 7-years,
the Tribulation period. FOR IT IS WRITTEN
in Daniel 9:26-27 (nKJV):

"And after the sixty-two weeks Messiah
shall be cut off, but not for Himself;
And the people of the prince who is to
come Shall destroy the city and the sanctuary
The end of it shall be with a flood,
And till the end of the war desolations
are determined.
27 Then he shall confirm a covenant with
many for one week; But in the middle
of the week He shall bring an end
to sacrifice and offering. And on
the wing of abominations shall be
one who makes desolate, Even until
the consummation, which is determined,
Is poured out on the desolate."

Please note the lower case "h" in "he" in verse 27
refering not to Messiah in verse 26 but the
to the 'prince that shall come', not the Messiah Prince.
Note that the capital 'H' in the second 'He'
is to start a line of poetry - it also refers to
the 'prince that shall come', not the Messiah Prince.
Note it is written that the Anti-messiah's seven years
are divided in the middle by the abomination
of desolation (AOD), dividing the 7-year period into
to parts each 3½-years long (1260 days, 42 months).

The rapture (caught up) will follow a resurrection,
FOR IT IS WRITTEN in 1 Thessalonains 4:13-18 (KJV1873):

But I would not have you to be ignorant,
brethren, concerning them which are asleep,
that ye sorrow not, even as others which have
no hope.
14 For if we believe that Jesus died and rose
again, even so them also which sleep in Jesus
will God bring with him.
15 For this we say unto you by the word of
the Lord, that we which are alive and remain
unto the coming of the Lord shall
not prevent them which are asleep.
16 For the Lord himself shall descend from
heaven with a shout, with the voice
of the archangel, and with the trump of God:
and the dead in Christ shall rise first:
17 Then we which are alive and remain
shall be caught up together with them
in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air:
and so shall we ever be with the Lord.
18 Wherefore comfort one another with these words.

The rapture/resurrection will occur without
previous notice and before the Tribulation period
(wrath) FOR IT IS WRITTEN in
1 Thessalonains 5:1-10 (KJV1873):

1 But of the times and the seasons, brethren,
ye have no need that I write unto you.
2 For yourselves know perfectly that
the day of the Lord so cometh as
a thief in the night.
3 For when they shall say,
Peace and safety; then sudden destruction
cometh upon them, as travail upon
a woman with child; and they shall not escape.
4 But ye, brethren, are not in darkness,
that that day should overtake you as a thief.
5 Ye are all the children of light,
and the children of the day: we are
not of the night, nor of darkness.
6 Therefore let us not sleep, as do others;
but let us watch and be sober.
7 For they that sleep sleep in the night;
and they that be drunken are drunken
in the night.
8 But let us, who are of the day,
be sober, putting on the breastplate
of faith and love; and for an helmet,
the hope of salvation.
9 For God hath not appointed us to wrath,
but to obtain salvation by our Lord Jesus Christ,
10 Who died for us, that, whether
we wake or sleep, we should live together with him.
11 Wherefore comfort yourselves together,
and edify one another, even as also ye do.

The rapture (caught up)/resurrection (gathering)
is at the beginning of the Tribulation period
(time of the Anti-messiah)
FOR IT IS WRITTEN in 2 Thessalonians 2:1-3 (KJV1873):

Now we beseech you, brethren,
by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ,
and by our gathering together unto him,
2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind,
or be troubled, neither by spirit,
nor by word, nor by letter as from us,
as that the day of Christ is at hand.
3 Let no man deceive you by any means:
for that day shall not come, except
there come a falling away first,
and that man of sin be revealed,
the son of perdition;

I have shown IT IS WRITTEN:
The Anti-messiah shall reign for 7-years,
the Tribulation period.
The rapture (caught up) will follow a resurrection.
The rapture/resurrection will occur without
previous notice and before the Tribulation period
(wrath).
The rapture (caught up)/resurrection (gathering)
is at the beginning of the Tribulation period
(time of the Anti-messiah)
 

Me4Him

New Member
Originally posted by Tom Butler:
Well Me4Him, I agree that the best thing would be to throw out all the systems through which we filter the end-time passages in the Bible. I suppose I have to ask myself, if I'd never heard of a pre-trib rapture, or any other view, would I find it in the Bible? It's really frustrating, because I just can't dump everything I've been exposed to, and act like my mind is empty.

The other frustrating thing is that the Tribulation passages are there for the reading; the Second Coming Passages are clear. The millenium seems to be a real 1,000 years, but the one-verse mention of it in the Revelation leaves a lot of questions unanswered. So why can't the pre-trib proof texts be just as clear? Why do we have to put together the puzzle pieces? It just doesn't make sense. I really can't see why it doesn't require spiritual discernment to see the Tribulation and the Second Coming, but the Pre-Trib Rapture does. Ah well, when it comes to eschatology, the best I can say is, this is where I am today. I may not be there tomorrow.


Tom
Scripture requires at least "TWO WITNESSES" to "establish the matter", and like a "puzzle", when two pieces fit together they bear witness to each other that they are in the correct place, else they won't fit together.

The OT is well known to have "Foreshadows" "prefigures" of future events, but most don't realize that the things Jesus said/done also "Foreshadows, Prefigure" future events.

1. Why wasn't the Sun created until the "fourth day"?
2. Why was Moses lamb chosen and held back "four days"?
3. Why did Jesus with until the "Fourth day" before resurrecting Lazarus
4. Why did Jesus spend Two days" with the Gentile woman at the well?
5. Why a marraige celebration "in the third day" in "Cana"??
6. Why does Matt 24 use "HIS BRANCH" in the parable of the Fig tree and MK uses "HER BRANCH", and Luke says "ALL THE TREES"?
7. Why does the feast days of the OT correspond with events in the NT??
8. Why does the bible mention the rapture as the day of Christ, and his return as the Day of the lord??

I'm a KJO, and believe "Every word" is written for a "reason", I expect (and find) the same prefection as the God who author it.

If you put all these pieces together, and it's the only way "ALL OF THEM" will fit, here's what you get.

fb96pv.jpg
 

Ed Edwards

<img src=/Ed.gif>
Amen, Brother Me4him -- Preach it!

Tom Butler: //My faith is strong and my hope is unshaken about the Tributlation and the Second Coming. It is so because I have clear Scripture on them. I would prefer to base my faith in a pre-trib rapture on clear Scripture, rather than to have to divine a mysterious secret wrung out of disconnected verses here and there.//

Actually that seems to me like a slap in the face.
I'm a Baptist believing in the Doctrine of the Priesthood of the
Beliver and the doctrine of Soul Sufficiency.

The Doctrine of Priesthood of the Believer says i MAY come to
God through Jesus Christ and NO OTHER WAY.
The Doctrine of Soul Sufficiency says i MUST come to God
through Jesus Christ and NO OTHER WAY.
I have to be responsible for my eschatology developed from the Bible
with guidance from the Holy Spirit. So I'm going to Hope in the
Pretribulation Rapture/resurrection until it happens if i live or if I
die.

1 Timothy 6:4 (KJV1611 Edition):

Hee is proud, knowing nothing, but doting
about questions, and strifes of wordes,
whereof commeth enuie, strife, railings, euill surmisings,

Which being in near-middle-English may be hard to understand.
Here it is in 21st Century English:

1 Timothy 6:4 (HCSB = Christian Standard Bible /Holman, 2003):

he is conceited, understanding nothing, but having a sick interest
in disputes and arguments over words.
From these come envy, quarreling, slanders, evil suspicions,


I find whole eschatologies waver one the meaning of one
simple Greek word "Kai", usually in English 'and'.
Like the English 'and' the Greek 'Kai' can mean:

1. polysyndeton the outline 'and'
2. the conjunction of two equal sets (with two different names)
3. the conjunction of two similiar sets
4. the conjunction of two different sets

Example AND in 2 Thessalonians 2:1
AND in Titus 2:13
two groups ANDed together in Revelation 20:4
etc.
 
For Me4Him - Yours is one good example of many on the work of the Spirit in the Old Testament. He indwelt all the writers, according to Peter (I Peter 1:11). At least from Bezaleel on, if not before, many other such individuals are named as being either filled or indwelt, that is, controlled by the Spirit. Once again, the question: what does that do to the view that the two "dispensations" are incompatible? And by the way, "The law and the prophets were until John," Luke 16:16 a.

We are looking at serious weather here in a little while, so I'll probably shut down, but will check the board late tomorrow evening. Best in Him - Charles - Rom. 8:28
 

Me4Him

New Member
Originally posted by R. Charles Blair:
For Me4Him - Yours is one good example of many on the work of the Spirit in the Old Testament. He indwelt all the writers, according to Peter (I Peter 1:11). At least from Bezaleel on, if not before, many other such individuals are named as being either filled or indwelt, that is, controlled by the Spirit. Once again, the question: what does that do to the view that the two "dispensations" are incompatible? And by the way, "The law and the prophets were until John," Luke 16:16 a.

We are looking at serious weather here in a little while, so I'll probably shut down, but will check the board late tomorrow evening. Best in Him - Charles - Rom. 8:28
Jesus and the church was a "mystery" not "revealed" to Israel in the OT, clues about it are there, but only clues.

Eph 5:32 This is a great mystery: but I speak concerning Christ and the church.

Eph 3:9 And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, (Jesus/Church) which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God,

Jesus was only "revealed" in the NT.

Under the OT, God spoke through the "L/P", believers wasn't "Indwelled" by the Holy Spirit, (note SPIRIT)

When Jesus came God stopped speaking (L/P) and Jesus started.

Heb 1:1 God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,

2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son,

Jesus sent the "Comforter", which is the "Holy Spirit", but now it's name changed to "HOLY GHOST", which is the "voice of Jesus", not God who speaks by the "SPIRIT".

Keep the "TRINITY" in mind. :D

Joh 14:26 But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name,

Joh 10:27 My sheep hear my voice,

Under the OT, "JESUS" AS JESUS, didn't speak, but as GOD, there was NO COMFORTER.

Ec 4:1 So I returned, and considered all the oppressions that are done under the sun: and behold the tears of such as were oppressed, and they had no comforter; and on the side of their oppressors there was power; but they had no comforter.

With the rapture of the HOLY GHOST, (comforter) power will again be on the side of their Oppressor, this is why satan can have dominion over "all kindren, tongues and nations".

(God's chastisement of Israel for rejecting Jesus, which isn't due the church)

The "HOLY GHOST", being "greater than satan" is the "restrainer" who must be "taken out of the way", before power will be on satan's side.

1Jo 4:4 because greater is he that is in you, than he that is in the world.

Israel will go back under the L/P system during the trib.

Rightly dividing the "WORD",

Father/Son, Spirit/Ghost, No comforter/Comforter, God speaking/Jesus speaking, L/P & Spiritual leadership,

it's the "TRINITY", which explains scripture and well as God.
thumbs.gif
 

genesis12

Member
Personally, I don't care what Darby or anyone else said (including Bro James) ;) outside of scripture.

Spiritually, I've read The Book. I know what it teaches. So, folks, I won't be here for the tribulation. I will have flown away to eternal security. I'll greet Jesus and my loved ones in the place He has prepared for me. Now......

If you don't know those scriptures, you can either hang it up, or find and study them. Wow! What a thought!
 

Me4Him

New Member
Originally posted by genesis12:
Personally, I don't care what Darby or anyone else said (including Bro James) ;) outside of scripture.

Spiritually, I've read The Book. I know what it teaches. So, folks, I won't be here for the tribulation. I will have flown away to eternal security. I'll greet Jesus and my loved ones in the place He has prepared for me. Now......

If you don't know those scriptures, you can either hang it up, or find and study them. Wow! What a thought!
Yep, I'll leaving "With you". :D
laugh.gif
laugh.gif


God was married to Israel, but gave her a "bill of divorcement", then made a wedding for his son,

The Lamb's marriage supper (rapture) takes place "in heaven" during the tribulation, which is the time period God uses the "ROD" (Satan/AC) to "binds up the breach" between him and Israel, their wedding celebration takes place in "Cana", (On earth during the MK, the Third day) but Jesus and his "Disciples" (Bride) are "invited".

However Israel was also "invited" to the "lamb's marriage supper", but refused.

Most Folks have a hard time understanding how the "TRINITY" also explains the scriptures.
 
Me4Him - Glad you see some "clues" in the OT about the "church age" - some who follow Darby can't even find those! Quite evidently you aren't in that camp. Really, all we have in OT prophecy of any NT or future event would be "clues" - as you say, not spelled out in detail before the NT.

But the statement in I Peter 1:11 says that "the Spirit of Christ ... was IN them" (the OT writers), and "testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ, and the glory that should follow." So Jesus was revealed to the OT writers, in whom the Spirit of Christ dwelt. Compare Nehemiah 9:30.

The first OT ref (of more than 80) is Gen. 1:2, "And the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters." He is called "the Spirit of God" over and over in the NT, several times in Romans 8, clearly written for us by anyone's theology. How do the several OT refs to "the Spirit of God" and the several NT refs using the same term differ, if at all? There are also multiple references to "the Spirit of the LORD." As I'm sure you know, LORD in caps refers to Jesus (OT Name "Jehovah" = "Saviour-God.")

Several refs in Isaiah: I like 48:16, where Jesus speaks and the entire trinity is in view. In Is. 63:10-11, God says that He "put His holy Spirit within him" (evidently Moses).

And as to comfort, Psalm 23:4, 71:21, and 86:17 all speak of God comforting OT saints.

The unity of the trinity is an interesting and deep subject, and it is generally true that the Father worked in the OT, the Son in the gospels, and the Spirit after the resurrection and ascension - but we also affirm the truth of one God, and the attempt to "rightly divide the word" all too often simply becomes "chopping it up" to suit some theory.

I assume you do hold one way of salvation in all ages; if not, we are simply talking at cross purposes anyhow, and might as well be silent.

Once again we are facing heavy storms, so will stand down with best wishes in His everlasting gospel - Charles - Ro. 8:28
 

Me4Him

New Member
Originally posted by R. Charles Blair:
Me4Him - Glad you see some "clues" in the OT about the "church age" - some who follow Darby can't even find those! Quite evidently you aren't in that camp. Really, all we have in OT prophecy of any NT or future event would be "clues" - as you say, not spelled out in detail before the NT.
Actually, you need the NT to "See" the clues in the OT.

(my Bible program isn't running on this computer, XP Pro is for the "birds" :mad:

It's my Gdaug: Computer and her keyboard has "truck springs" under the keys, I can't type on it.
laugh.gif
laugh.gif




But the statement in I Peter 1:11 says that "the Spirit of Christ ... was IN them" (the OT writers), and "testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ, and the glory that should follow." So Jesus was revealed to the OT writers, in whom the Spirit of Christ dwelt. Compare Nehemiah 9:30.
I read, "somewhere", that "Cain" in Hebrew meant "he has come", Eve evidently knew from the start of the "Messiah".

I'm "inclined" to believe it, because he prove to be an "antichrist" type.


The first OT ref (of more than 80) is Gen. 1:2, "And the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters." He is called "the Spirit of God" over and over in the NT, several times in Romans 8, clearly written for us by anyone's theology. How do the several OT refs to "the Spirit of God" and the several NT refs using the same term differ, if at all? There are also multiple references to "the Spirit of the LORD." As I'm sure you know, LORD in caps refers to Jesus (OT Name "Jehovah" = "Saviour-God.")
They different only in the "method" of "leadership", L/P, Spiritual, (HG).

The "Angel of the Lord/God", in the OT is the manifestation of Jesus but he wasn't revealed as "God in the flesh",

Israel is expecting a "Physical man" "OF GOD", (i.e Moses) not "God in the flesh".

Several refs in Isaiah: I like 48:16, where Jesus speaks and the entire trinity is in view. In Is. 63:10-11, God says that He "put His holy Spirit within him" (evidently Moses).

And as to comfort, Psalm 23:4, 71:21, and 86:17 all speak of God comforting OT saints.
Judges 13, ( I think) the angel refused to reveal his name to "Samson's mother, it was Jesus, but later the arch angel revealed to Mary his name, "HIS NAME SHALL BE JESUS".
The unity of the trinity is an interesting and deep subject, and it is generally true that the Father worked in the OT, the Son in the gospels, and the Spirit after the resurrection and ascension - but we also affirm the truth of one God, and the attempt to "rightly divide the word" all too often simply becomes "chopping it up" to suit some theory.
Yep, it can be confusing, I'm still learning different ways, it applies.

I assume you do hold one way of salvation in all ages; if not, we are simply talking at cross purposes anyhow, and might as well be silent.
Yep, NO MAN (OT/NT) comes to the father but by "ME".
Once again we are facing heavy storms, so will stand down with best wishes in His everlasting gospel - Charles - Ro. 8:28
I was in lexington Saturday, it rained hard, chilly, when I got home (Cumberland Gap) is was in the mid 70's, sunny.
 

Ed Edwards

<img src=/Ed.gif>
Isa 29:17-21 (KJV1611 Edition):
Is it not yet a very litle while, and Lebanon
shall be turned into a fruitful field, and
the fruitfull field shall be esteemed as
a forrest?

18 And in that day shall the deafe heare the
words of the booke, and the eyes of the blind
shall see out of obscuritie, and out of
darkenesse.
19 The meeke also shall increase their ioy
in the Lord, and the poore among men shall
reioice in the holy One of Israel.

20 For the terrible one is brought
to nought
, and the scorner is consumed,
and all that watch for iniquitie are cut off:
21 That make a man an offendour for a
word, and lay a snare for him that reproueth in
the gate, and turne aside the iust for a thing of
nought.

After the 'terriuble one is brought to
nought' (Antichrist destroyed) there will be
a time descripted here. If this prophecy was
fulfilled in the interbiblical (400BC-1BC)
First Advent (1AD-33AD) or church age
(33AD-2006 and counting) - now would be a good
time to remind of the history of that period.

Otherwise, I shall believe there is a future
coming Messianic Ruled Period. Perchance this
is the same as the 1,000 years mentioned in
Revelation 20: the Millinnial Messanic Kingdom.
 

Me4Him

New Member
Originally posted by Ed Edwards:

After the 'terriuble one is brought to
nought' (Antichrist destroyed) there will be
a time descripted here. If this prophecy was
fulfilled in the interbiblical (400BC-1BC)
First Advent (1AD-33AD) or church age
(33AD-2006 and counting) - now would be a good
time to remind of the history of that period.

Otherwise, I shall believe there is a future
coming Messianic Ruled Period. Perchance this
is the same as the 1,000 years mentioned in
Revelation 20: the Millinnial Messanic Kingdom.
Yep, the "Seventh day of Rest", or "Mill Reign".

Jews interpret scripture "literally", that's why they require physical "signs and wonders" as "proof",

and the "Kingdom" promised to the Jews in the OT was understood to be a "Physical" or "Literal" Kingdom to come.

Jesus's "Spiritual Kingdom" (Church) was a "Mystery" not revealed to them,

so, "IF" they could not find "evidence" of it in the scripture, and Jesus would not "Perform" the signs and wonders described in the OT for the "Messiah" coming, (Jesus's physical coming, Day of the Lord) then Jesus can't be the "Messiah".

The "Day of the Lord" when Jesus returns and sit up that Kingdom and all the events surrounding it are mentioned throughout the OT,

but not one mention of "Jesus/Church/Day of Christ" (Rapture) because it was only revealed in the NT.

There's almost as much "ignorance" among Christian about God's promises to Israel,

as there is among Jews about Jesus's promises to the Church.
 

Tom Butler

New Member
Now I'm really confused. I confess that I have reached the limits of my ability to understand dispy theology. Ed Edwards' posts just left me with my eyes glazed over. I even went over to the Hyper-Dispy thread, and found that not all dispys agree, and even those who agree have changed their views over the years. The "Day of the Lord" is post-trib. No, wait a minute, it's pre-trib. Matthew 24 is post-trib. Naw, it's pre-trib. The Tribulation is 7 years. Wait, it's just three-and-a-half years. All the saints will be taken in the pre-trib rapture, leaving only the lost. Oops, some saints will be left behind. No Gentile is saved in the Tribulation. Only Jews will be said. Wait a minute, some Gentiles will be saved.

The Holy Spirit is the Restrainer. Categorically stated, with no supporting scripture. I Thess 4-13-17 is pre-trib. But Ch. 5 refers to the Day of the Lord (post-trib--uh pre-trib). The thief in the night refers to the rapture. But it's in a post-trib passage. Nope, that's all pre-trib.

I suppose I'll understand it all, bye and bye. For the moment, I'm blind, deaf and dumb.


Tom B.
 

Paul33

New Member
Very funny, Tom!

That's the problem with dispensationalism, it right divides the word again and again and again.

Jesus and Paul agree! Matthew 24 and 1 Thess. 4 and 5, and 2 Thess. 1 and 2 are all in agreement!

The tribulation will come, then signs in the heavens, then the return of Christ and the catching up of Saints.

Not complicated at all!
 
Brother Tom: I have a rather thick collection of pre-mil statements that are "all over the map" on several issues. In part, that may be God's way of keeping us humble; after all, how many OT saints understood the prophecies of the first coming? As you have time, would you contact me by "PM" - I have an item to send you, and the e-dress I have doesn't seem to work.

Me4Him - Thanks for the good reply from the "Gap." We've been there - beautiful country. Are you near Cudjo's Cave? While we disagree on details, we're both looking forward to His return, and it is good to know of our agreement on salvation.

For anyone, even either Ed (2 better than 1?) - I've been preaching through I & II Thessalonians and am more and more impressed with the grammar in II Ths. 1, where the word "when" is used twice.
Quoting with some omissions for space, vv. 6-10:

Seeing it is a righteous thing with God to recompense tribulation to them that trouble you:

And to you who are troubled rest with us, WHEN
the Lord Jesus shall be revealed from heaven ...

taking vengeance on them that know not God ...

Who shall be punished with everlasting destruction . . .

WHEN He shall come to be glorified in His saint, and to be admired in all them that believe . . .

I cannot escape the force of the grammar. WHEN He comes in flaming fire, revealed from Heaven with His mighty angels, believers receive rest and the lost are punished - grammatically, at the same time. WHEN He comes to be glorified in His saints, the lost are punished with destruction - gramatically, at the same time. The two time adverbs are interwoven, overlapping, and to me have always taught one event. I note that many pre-mil interpreters comment that it is difficult to arrange the time element in this passage. Any takers? We'll be gone to a missions conference in Memphis for the next few days, so you have some time. Best in Him - Charles - Ro. 8:28
 

Ed Edwards

<img src=/Ed.gif>
R. Charles Blain: //I cannot escape the force of the grammar. WHEN He comes in flaming fire, revealed from Heaven with His mighty angels, believers receive rest and the lost are punished - grammatically, at the same time. //

Feel free to tell us what you are talking about.

Meanwhile, consider these DIFFERENCES:
--------------------------------------------------------

Comparing the rapture/resurrection (R) AKA: gathering
with the Second Advent (SC): when Jesus comes
to destroy the Antichrist and set up the
Millennial Kingdom AKA: Glorious Appearance.

1R. Jesus comes for His own ( given physical bodies)
(John 14:3, 1 Thess 4:17)
1SC. Jesus comes with His own (already have physical bodies) (Rev 19:14)

2R. Jesus comes in the air (1 Thes 4:17)
2SC. Jesus comes to the earth
(Zech 14:4-5, Acts 1:11)

3R. Jesus comes to claim His Bride
(1 Thess 4:16-17)
3SC. Jesus comes with His Bride
(Rev 19:6-14)

4R. end of the Gentile Age
(Matthew 24:3, 24:31-44)
4SC. end of the Tribulation Period
(Revelation 19)

5R. Tribulation period begins
5SC. Millennial Kingdom begins

6R. Saved are delivered from wrath
(1 Thes 1:10, 5:9; Rev 3:10)
6SC. Unsaved experience the wrath of God
(Rev 6:12-17)

7R. No Signs precede the Rapture
(1 Thess. 5:1-3, Matthew 24:31-44)
7SC. Signs precede the Second Coming
(Luke 21-11-28, Matthew 24:21-30)

8R. Focus: Lord and Church
(1 Thess 4:13-18)
8SC. Focus: Israel and kingdom
(Romans 11)

9R. World is deceived (2 Thess 2:3-12)
9SC. Satan is bound (Rev 20:1-2)

10R. No judgement mentioned on earth
10SC. Follows the Tribulation period
judgement and followed by the sheep/goats
judgement.

11R. Time of joy. (1Thessalonians 4:17-18)
11SC. Time of sorrow. (Matthew 24:30)

12R. relative peace and prosperity. (Lk.17:26-30).
12SC. the worst war the world has ever seen. (Mt.24:21,22).

13R. Christians are promised they will be delivered
-- from the wrath to come
13SC. Israeli are told to flee the wrath to come

-------------------------------------------

But some say this conflicts:

2Th 1:7-10 (KJV1611 Edition):
And to you who are troubled, rest with vs, when the Lord Iesus
shalbe reuealed from heauen, with his mightie Angels,
8 In flaming fire, taking vengeance on them that know not
God, and that obey not the Gospel of our Lorde Iesus Christ,
9 Who shalbe punished with euerlasting destruction from
the presence of the Lord, and from the glory of his power:
10 When hee shall come to bee glorified in his Saints,
and to bee admired in all them that beleeue
(because our testimony among you was beleeued) in that day.

Here is Strong's for the Greek term
translated 'When':

G3752
ὅταν
hotan
hot'-an
From G3753 and G302; whenever (implying
hypothesis or more or less uncertainty);
also causative (conjugationally) inasmuch
as: - as long (soon) as, that, + till,
when (-soever), while.


I see nothing in this definition that
FORCES ONLY the translation that
the events of verse 10 MUST FOLLOW the
events of Verses 7-9.
In fact, the Judgement that comes on
the world discussed in 2 Thess 1:7-9
IS CAUSED BY the glorification of the Saints
in the pretribulation rapture disussed
in verse 10.

Of course, if you are called to be a
martyr in the Tribulation Period, then you
might NOT WANT to figure this scripture
follows the same order of events as does
many other eschatological scriptures .
 

Ed Edwards

<img src=/Ed.gif>
Tom B on Dispensationalism: //I suppose I'll understand it all, bye and bye.
For the moment, I'm blind, deaf and dumb.//

Interesting phrasology, Freudian slip
, etc.

The Greek word translated as "dispensation" in the New
Testament is the same Greek word from which we get our
English word "Economy".

Here is a short rundown of God's Economy:

1. plenty of room at the table (i.e. salvation is for all who will come)
2. the blind see
3. the deaf hear
4. the dumb become politicians ;) , eh, er, the dumb give political speaches
 

Tom Butler

New Member
Paul33 said
That's the problem with dispensationalism, it right divides the word again and again and again.

Jesus and Paul agree! Matthew 24 and 1 Thess. 4 and 5, and 2 Thess. 1 and 2 are all in agreement


The tribulation will come, then signs in the heavens, then the return of Christ and the catching up of Saints.

Not complicated at all!
Are you tellin' me that the reason we don't find an unequivocal scripture telling of a pre-trib rapture because there ain't such a thing? Well, Shazam, Paul. Thanks. I thought I was just too dumb to see it. I feel better now.

Tom B
 

Tom Butler

New Member
Hello, Ed Edwards, and other dispys,

I couldn't resist a little fun at your expense, but that's all it is. I am a recovering dispy, and I know how strongly held your views are. And I respect the strong way you defend them. This discussion had gotten so serious, I just couldn't resist a little lightheartedness for relief.

Tom B.
 
Bro. Ed - Thanks for your insights. You do note that it isn't "when ... then," but "when ... when," interlaced for emphasis. Having taught Greek since 1959, I'm fairly familiar with the language, and either in English or in Greek I cannot see any way gramatically to separate these interlocked events.

As you well know, all the Scriptures you have noted are subject to other interpretations, depending to some extent on one's over-all theological framework.

Have a great day in the Lord! - Charles - Ro. 8:28
 

Me4Him

New Member
Originally posted by Tom Butler:
Now I'm really confused. I confess that I have reached the limits of my ability to understand dispy theology. Ed Edwards' posts just left me with my eyes glazed over. I even went over to the Hyper-Dispy thread, and found that not all dispys agree, and even those who agree have changed their views over the years. The "Day of the Lord" is post-trib. No, wait a minute, it's pre-trib. Matthew 24 is post-trib. Naw, it's pre-trib. The Tribulation is 7 years. Wait, it's just three-and-a-half years. All the saints will be taken in the pre-trib rapture, leaving only the lost. Oops, some saints will be left behind. No Gentile is saved in the Tribulation. Only Jews will be said. Wait a minute, some Gentiles will be saved.

The Holy Spirit is the Restrainer. Categorically stated, with no supporting scripture. I Thess 4-13-17 is pre-trib. But Ch. 5 refers to the Day of the Lord (post-trib--uh pre-trib). The thief in the night refers to the rapture. But it's in a post-trib passage. Nope, that's all pre-trib.

I suppose I'll understand it all, bye and bye. For the moment, I'm blind, deaf and dumb.


Tom B.
Actually, it's quite simple to understand, As Ed showed, different events occur with each coming, "Day of Christ" (rapture) and the "Day of the Lord". (physical return)

Israel rejected Jesus but even with the rejection God isn't finished with them, but they are "BLINDED" until the "fulness of the Gentiles" or Jesus is finshed with the church, so it not that hard to see that both Jesus/God are not dealing with Church/Israel at the same time.

Jas 3:12 Can the fig tree, my brethren, bear olive berries? either a vine, figs? so can no fountain both yield salt water and fresh. (at the same time)

If Jesus's preaching stopped the L/P, then Jesus will have to stop preaching before the L/P" will return, which is what happen when the "VOICE OF JESUS, Holy Ghost, calls the church home in the rapture, Israel will then return until the "L/P" (two witnesses, Moses/Elijah) for the trib period.

Israel won't believe without "signs and wonders" and Jesus won't give any, save the sign of Jonas.

However God will.

Re 11:3 And I will give power unto my two witnesses,

Re 11:6 These have power to shut heaven, that it rain not in the days of their prophecy: and have power over waters to turn them to blood, and to smite the earth with all plagues, as often as they will.

"Dispensations" of leadership within scripture can be broken down into the
1. OT/God/Israel,
2. NT/Jesus/church,
3. Trib/Satan, (God/Israel)
4. MK/God/Israel/Jesus/church combined.
5. New Heaven/Earth
 
Top