Dispensationalism

[John of Japan]

I can relate to Pink becoming a recluse at the end of his tumultuous life. As I understand it, Pink was not attending church because the churches near him were apostate, liberal, or speaking Gaelic language that he did not understand.

The Gaelic was part of it, but there was a Presbyterian church he could have gone to, but he and the pastor didn't get along.

Arthur W. Pink ceased attending formal church services during the last two decades of his life (roughly 1934–1952), choosing instead to live in near-isolation in Scotland. He concluded that modern churches were not aligned with his strict Calvinist theology, and that it was better to stay at home and study scripture, focusing on his writing ministry for Studies in the Scriptures.

The pastor of that church was a C alvinist.

He believed in separation from "unfaithful ministers," and believed that he was complying with Scripture's call to go "without the camp".

Following unsuccessful pastorates and a perceived failure in public ministry, he shifted his focus entirely to written ministry.

While in Stornoway, Scotland, he left the local church, partly due to finding English services lifeless and feeling like an outsider in a Gaelic-speaking environment.

While some critics regarded this as a self-imposed exile or a result of a difficult personality, others viewed it as a consistent, albeit extreme, application of his theological principles regarding separated living.

Good takes on the history. Thank you.

 

[John of Japan]

Dispensationalism, O.P.​

WHAT IS A “DISPENSATION”?​

And first, as regards the meaning of the word 'dispensation' itself, it is easily to be seen, that the Biblical meaning thereof is radically different from that assigned to it by the “Scofield Bible,” where it is stated that:–

"LET us at this point inquire what, if any, support the Bible lends to the basic idea of Modern dispensationalism, namely, that God has divided all time (past and future) into seven distinct and clearly distinguishable “dispensations;” and that in each of those “dispensations” He deals with mankind upon 'a special plan' and upon 'peculiar principles that differ from those of all the others'.

"But in our English Version of the Scriptures the word “dispensation” is not in a single instance used to designate 'a period of time', whatsoever. ​

Thank you for helping me rebut dispensationalism. No one in revised dispensationalism defines a dispensation as "a period of time." Even in Pink's day, Lewis Sperry Chafer did not define it that way.

"Paul says, “A dispensation of the Gospel is committed to me” (I Cor. 9:17); that is to say, the Gospel had been entrusted to him to be dispensed by him.​

This is complete baloney. No dispensational theology treats a dispensation as something to be "dispensed." That has nothing to do with either the English or the Greek.

"And the word has a similar intent, definition, import, and connotation conveying its meaning in other passages, all its occurrences being in the writings of the apostle Paul. Thus in Ephesians 1:10 the word 'dispensation' is a reference to “the dispensation of the fulness of the times”; and the Apostle is there speaking of that which God had Purposed to administer or dispense in these Last Days. (“The fulness of the time,” according to Galatians 4:4, is the Era when “God sent forth His Son.”).​

Again, "dispensed" is baloney. No dispensational theologian holds to that: Darby, Scofield, Chafer, Ryrie, Vlach, etc. It is in fact the "etymological fallacy."

"Again in Ephesians 3:2 Paul speaks of “the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward”; the meaning being that the ministry given him was to dispense the grace of God to the Gentiles.

And lastly, in Colossians 1:25 he refers to “the dispensation of God,” that had been given him, “to fulfil the word of God”; the reference being to that which God had made him responsible to administer or dispense, in fulfilment of the word of God concerning His previously concealed Purpose as to the salvation of the Gentiles.

"These are all the occurrences of the word "dispensation",
in the New Testament.​

But there are other usages where the Greek word oikomenos (οἰκόμενος) is translated differently. But Pink, having quit Moody Bible Institute without completing a single semester wouldn't know that, because he had no Greek or Hebrew training.

"In the English Version of the Bible, therefore, the word “dispensation” always means administration, or stewardship. ​

This makes more sense, so he is partially right.

"Our English word “economy” comes directly from the Greek word rendered “dispensation” in the four passages above referred to.​

This is baloney. "Economy" does not come from the Greek word, which is (as above) oikomenos.

"It is to be deplored that a Biblical word of definite intent, definition, import, and connotation conveying its meaning should have been chosen for the purpose of this New System of Doctrine, and a radically different intent, definition, import, and connotation conveying its meaning assigned to it."

Philip Mauro: The Gospel of the Kingdom (1927) – Preterist Archives

preteristarchives.org

​

Satan apparently leaves some extremely strategic vulnerable loopholes and telling clues in his supernaturally evil schemes that God allows to be left in place for the whole world to see, if you look for them and believe the Bible, instead of him.

Like the Holly Rollers who believe they are Sanctified 'holy', when the Bible says, 'wholly'.

Or the premillennial, postmillennial, or premillennial dispensationalists who think an Earthly Reign of Jesus is contained within the verse in Revelation 20:4, which speaks of 'a thousand years'.

Actually the "1000" occurs 6 times in several verses there in Rev. 20.

I understand what the word “dispensation” always means when it is used in the Bible.

Try to understand it, too.

Yes, I try to do that. I have a whole lecture on that in my course on Dispensational Theology.

 

[Mikey]

 

[Salty]

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Should I be surprised if someone re-starts a new one ASAP