Do Arminians Believe Babies Are Saved?

Can we please avoid the silly designations of theological systems as "dark and depressing"? They are subjective, relative, sterotypical, and don't further things at all.

 

How does the SCripture allow for postmillenialism? I don't see that it does.

 

Yes.

 

For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law. -Romans 5:13

What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet. But sin, taking occasion by the commandment, wrought in me all manner of concupiscence. For without the law sin was dead. For I was alive without the law once: but when the commandment came, sin revived, and I died. And the commandment, which was ordained to life, I found to be unto death. For sin, taking occasion by the commandment, deceived me, and by it slew me. Wherefore the law is holy, and the commandment holy, and just, and good. Was then that which is good made death unto me? God forbid. But sin, that it might appear sin, working death in me by that which is good; that sin by the commandment might become exceeding sinful. -Romans 7:7-13

Both of these passages are often quoted when dealing with salvation, and rightly so. It seems to me that if the law is necessary to provide conviction (Galatians 3:24), then those who cannot (not will not) receive such conviction because of the inability to properly reason are (for lack of a better term) covered by God's grace. This does not excuse the one who may have never heard the gospel because they still refuse to believe the testimony of creation (Romans 1:18-32) and their own conscience which was God given (Romans 2:11-16). This very easilt explains the confidence that David had of his first child with Bathsheeba residing in Heaven. I do not intend to be rude, but how can the Calvinist give an explanation of that confidence, seeing they hold the position that they have to wait until they die to find out for sure if they are saved or not? Was David incorrect?

zcostilla

 

Son of Coffee Man,

You are correct. There was a reason why God had this passage placed in the Word of God. The reason being so that those who lose little ones in death may have great consolation that one day they will see these babies/children again in Heaven. I am also sure that the Lord has many other lessons He is teaching from the passage that you wrote down for us.

 

so then Ken (and others),

lets clarify.

Is the question on the floor whether or not infants are saved, or is this just another vent for the calvinist/armenian debate? I understand the forum is "Calvinism/Armeniansim" but what exactly are we focusing in on here?

SoCM

 

You have wandered into the middle of something, so the question is not REALLY about whether babies go to heaven. Let me try to explain what it is REALLY about.

Ken, because of his particular eschatalogical view, believes that there will be more people in heaven than in hell. For this he has been roundly chastised by some.

Some of those who spoke strongly against the "more in heaven than in hell" idea believe that all babies who die go to heaven. So the question underlying the thread is this, "If you believe all babies who die go to heaven, then why are you arguing the point that more will be in heaven than hell, since it seems that if you take all the believers throughout history and add to them all the babies and young children that have died, including those aborted and miscarried throughout all of history, then you might well get the larger number of people in heaven?"

Does that help explain the discussion at all?

 

Having been reared in Arminianism, and only
recently having left it, I never heard of babies
going to hell until I began to converse with
Calvinists. We were taught that they were
innocent and went to be with the Lord.

 

Ken --

What do you believe? Do all babies who die
go to be with the Lord because they are
innocent? Do they all go to Hell because they
have not asked forgiveness? Do they all go
to be with the Lord because they never sinned?
Do they all go to Hell because all are born
sinnning? Do some go to be with the Lord and
some to hell? What?

 

Thank you, Ken.

--Still learning.

 

Ken,

If that is your statement, then why can we not examine the passage I posted?

SoCM

 

.....
If all children go to heaven, and we are all judged the same way, should not the samebe true of all adults. Was Jesus not the substitute for adults. Not saying that i agree or disagree, just concerned with reconciling your two positions...

 

Why????????