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Do Bible Translators deliberately Mistranslate?
- Thread starter McCree79
- Start date
Getting closer to the Bible, which is the same thing (usually
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That's what I was wondering.
It seems like that statement from the translation folks could be read that way, or perhaps I am misreading?
I know of nothing that confines this to an either/or situation. It could as well be both/and.
IOW, you are saying either what it mean or meets needs of the time. It could be both that it means and meets the needs of the times.
We do know that King James really dislike the Calvinistic note sin the Geneva Bible, especially as relating to kings and monarchs, so maybe the team felt "pressured" to at times confirm to his will?
True, but still should have used another term.
You're welcome to your opinion about the translation of this word, but should also consider that most Bible translators, based on the translation in the Bibles they produced, do not agree with you.
That is true, and fine, do you think the word mean immersion or not though?
Of course it means immersion. I am not arguing that immersion is a bad translation; only that baptism is a perfectly fine translation. On the other hand, you seem fixated on the King James translators translating a word in the same way that most English translators before and after them have.
And some not English.
Mateo 3:13 [Reina Valera, 1960, Spanish] Entonces Jesús vino de Galilea a Juan al Jordán, para ser bautizado por él.
Matthieu 3:13 [Louis Segond, French] Alors Jésus vint de la Galilée au Jourdain vers Jean, pour être baptisé par lui.
Matteo 3:13 [La Nuova Diodati, Italian] Allora Gesú venne dalla Galilea al Giordano da Giovanni per essere da lui battezzato.
Mateus 3:13 [Nova Versão Internacional, Portuguese] Então Jesus veio da Galiléia ao Jordão para ser batizado por João.
Matayos 3:13 [Somali Bible] Markaasaa Ciise Galili ka yimid oo Webi Urdun ugu tegey Yooxanaa inuu baabtiiso.
Not fixed upon it, but just wishing that the actual meant word was translated...
Do Bible Translators Deliberately Mistranslate the Bible?
Probably not. They think they are presenting what it really means. Liberals deny they are liberals, they say they are progressives. Translators do not say they alter the text, they claim their translation correctly presents the intended message.
OTOH, translations are deliberate, and they contain mistranslations.
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Probably not. They think they are presenting what it really means. Liberals deny they are liberals, they say they are progressives. Translators do not say they alter the text, they claim their translation correctly presents the intended message.
OTOH, translations are deliberate, and they contain mistranslations.
.ALL translations have something to some degree not exactly same as the originals ones, right?Do Bible Translators Deliberately Mistranslate the Bible?
Probably not. They think they are presenting what it really means. Liberals deny they are liberals, they say they are progressives. Translators do not say they alter the text, they claim their translation correctly presents the intended message.
OTOH, translations are deliberate, and they contain mistranslations.
It is off topic to point out that various translations are based on differing texts, such as the CT, MT and TR, and that all these versions are not thought to be perfect copies of the original autographs.
It is true that some scribes altered the text when they copied it, both by accident and on purpose. It would be fair to say translators also alter the text, both by accident and on purpose.
Since Mounce was quoted as saying translators do not deliberately mistranslate, let us consider 2 Thess 2:13, where Mounce originally translated it chosen...for salvation... through faith in the truth. But then offered a different translation which changed a noun into a verb to make the verse say we were saved through faith, not chosen through faith.
It is true that some scribes altered the text when they copied it, both by accident and on purpose. It would be fair to say translators also alter the text, both by accident and on purpose.
Since Mounce was quoted as saying translators do not deliberately mistranslate, let us consider 2 Thess 2:13, where Mounce originally translated it chosen...for salvation... through faith in the truth. But then offered a different translation which changed a noun into a verb to make the verse say we were saved through faith, not chosen through faith.
What a terrible thing it is when someone changes a verse to try and make it mean something it obviously doesn't! Like by missing out 'through sanctification by the Spirit.'
Martin when we are baptized into Christ, that is our "sanctification by the Spirit." Sanctification means to be set apart for a holy purpose.
Another example of a deliberate mistranslation is the ESV translating "apo" as before at Revelation 13:8.
2 Thes. 2:13. 'But we are always bound to give thanks to God always for you, brethren beloved by the Lord, because God from the beginning chose you for salvation through sanctification by the Spirit and belief in the truth.'
'From the beginning' means from before the foundation of the world (Ephesians 1:4; Titus 1:2; 1 Peter 1:2). God chose His people to be saved from eternity past, and the means He used to save them were firstly, their setting apart by the Spirit, and secondly, their God-given (Ephesians 2:8) faith in Christ.
It's not a translation I would have made, but I understand why they did it.
From the beginning refers to creation and since creation, it does not refer to before creation. Stating an obvious falsehood Martin is beneath you. James 2:5 indicates God chose individuals who were poor to the world, thus existing within created and fallen mankind. This fits with from the beginning. Lots of verses indicate this obvious fact. You view has no actual support in scripture.
The election before creation in Ephesians 1:4 was Christ being chosen as God's Redeemer, and therefore all those His Redeemer would redeem were corporately chosen in Him. The promise given "long ages ago" refers to promises God gave to His creation. See Romans 1:2. Those chosen in 1 Peter 1:2 were chosen according to the foreknowledge of God the Father and indicates those chosen were chosen according to God's redemption plan formulated before creation, i.e. chosen from the beginning through faith in the truth.
Being totally confused is not beneath you. From the beginning means that there was never a time that God's elect were not chosen for salvation. This is absolutely in line with Ephesians 1:4 and Titus 1:2, not to mention 2 Thessalonians 2:13. He tells them, "I have loved you with an everlasting love" There was never a time when God did not love His elect.
You are getting more and more silly. 'In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth.' How many people were around then? God is the 'I AM;' He sits outside time and all that happens He has decreed in eternity. He knew who was going to be rich or poor
Just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world........having predestined us to adoption as sons.' WE were chosen before the foundation of the world. Get it right.
You are all over the place. I can't make out what you are trying to say. There is no time signature on Romans 1:2; all it we know from that verse is that it is in the past. We then go to Eph. 1:4; Titus 1:2 etc. to find out how far in the past. 'In hope of eternal life which God, who cannot lie, promised before time began.' How long before time began? We can't say because time hadn't begun!! 1 Peter 1:2 speaks of the foreknowledge of God; are you saying that God did not know who His elect were until time started? That contradicts all the other verses. What we know is that there was never a time when God had not made the promise of eternal life, and that we (i.e. Christians) were chosen before the foundation of the world.