convicted1
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, just going to go teach some Riemann Sums leading to the definition of the Definite Integral. That should eliminate it.
uh, yeah....now I need the excedrin....
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, just going to go teach some Riemann Sums leading to the definition of the Definite Integral. That should eliminate it.
Probably cause it for others, just going to go teach some Riemann Sums leading to the definition of the Definite Integral. That should eliminate it.
Fellas....that would go good if animated by cartoon noises.
And as far as it not being the SAME problem, I did not think you made a case for that at all.
Hey P4T,
Sorry for offending you. I will bow out of this thread now.
Strong argument there, Luke.
I don't think you made a case for the problems being the same, so I guess we are even. :thumbsup:
As I stated, which you just dismissed, I concede that if one accepts the typical God 'foreknows and permits all things view' of the 'Arminian' (which I also believe is speculative in that it is anthropomorphic language) then their is a problem of: Why didn't God prevent instead of permit evil, and why did he ALLOW all those people to make free choices to reject Him and go to Hell?
But that is a much DIFFERENT problem than that of the determinist (compatibilist). As the question for a determinist would be: Why did God cause (determine) evil and then hold all those billions of people responsible for it?
Yes, both are problems, but they are very different problems. God permitting evil to enter the world and allowing billions of people to suffer the consequences of their free moral choices, is a very different problem than God causing evil to enter the world (through secondary means etc) so that billions of people would certainly suffer the consequences of God's decreed choices so as to bring Himself glory.
To equate those two as being equal problems is a fallacy of the the greatest magnitude. And is the "YOU TOO" fallacy to which I was referring... You can't answer the problem with your system so you point to a PERCEIVED problem within mine instead, but our problem is not near as severe as your problem and in fact, our problem is ONLY a problem IF one refuses to appeal to mystery regarding divine knowledge as it relates to God's creation of time and finite creatures with morally accountable wills.
And you have done so by suggesting that God's permissive will is equal to his decretive will, which is simply unfounded. As stated, and apparently ignored, God permitting evil to enter the world and allowing billions of people to suffer the consequences of their free moral choices, is a very different problem than God causing evil to enter the world (through secondary means etc) so that billions of people would certainly suffer the consequences of God's decreed choices so as to bring Himself glory.My goal is to point point out that "you too" have the same problem that we have.
And appealing to mystery PRIOR to concluding that God has actively decreed all things, yes even the sinful choices of man, is not 'redefining God.' It's just appealing to mystery before drawing unfounded conclusions. The only group 'redefining God' are the Openists and the Calvinists. Openists redefined God's omniscience and Calvinists redefine his Holiness. I do neither. I believe He is fully HOLY and thus has NOTHING to do with the origin or cause of man's rebellion. I also believe he knows all things.We both have to say, "God is holy and good. God knew what was going to happen before he made the world. I don't know how all of that works- but I trust him. What I am not willing to do is redefine God to exonerate him in my mind."
And you have done so by suggesting that God's permissive will is equal to his decretive will, which is simply unfounded.
As stated, and apparently ignored, God permitting evil to enter the world and allowing billions of people to suffer the consequences of their free moral choices, is a very different problem than God causing evil to enter the world (through secondary means etc) so that billions of people would certainly suffer the consequences of God's decreed choices so as to bring Himself glory.
And appealing to mystery PRIOR to concluding that God has actively decreed all things, yes even the sinful choices of man, is not 'redefining God.'
You don't have to. When you equate your problem with our problem you are equating permissive will with decretive will.I've not said a word about his decretive will.
It's why they perish that is the distinction you don't want to address. I think we all know why that is.No. It really is not. Both have God making a universe on purpose in which billions will perish.
We are both in the same boat.
I agree. Who did that and can you quote their actual words?Appealing to mystery in such a way that it redefines omniscience is redefining God.
Incorrect, I'm saying the same thing about God's KNOWING as you have said about God's CHOOSING. The scripture reveals that God knows and God chooses, but even his KNOWING and CHOOSING is different than the way in which we know and choose, so conclusions should not be drawn that aren't directly revealed. (i.e. "God knowing something prior to creating it but choosing to create it anyway is equal to determining it to be." )When you say that you cannot be certain that God KNEW BEFORE HE MADE ADAM THAT ADAM WOULD SIN because the way God knows things is different from the way we know them- then you are using what we cannot know about omniscience to redefine what we can and do know about omniscience.
You don't have to. When you equate your problem with our problem you are equating permissive will with decretive will.
It's why they perish that is the distinction you don't want to address. I think we all know why that is.
I agree. Who did that and can you quote their actual words?
BTW, you are the one who said that God knows things DIFFERENTLY than we KNOW them and that His KNOWING and CHOOSING is anthropomorphic language that really can't be understood by us, so when you speak of 'redefining omniscience' are you meaning defining it differently than the way we anthropomorphically understand it, or differently than God understands it?
Incorrect, I'm saying the same thing about God's KNOWING as you have said about God's CHOOSING.
The scripture reveals that God knows and God chooses,
but even his KNOWING and CHOOSING is different than the way in which we know and choose, so conclusions should not be drawn that aren't directly revealed. (i.e. "God knowing something prior to creating it but choosing to create it anyway is equal to determining it to be." )
Hey Rick......what is "doe snot"? Sounds icky! :laugh:
You don't have to. When you equate your problem with our problem you are equating permissive will with decretive will.
No. I've done no such thing this entire thread.
I'm saying that God's KNOWING something BEFORE is anthropomorphic because God is not on a before/after timeline like we are. You are talking of God as if he is an all knowing man, not an infinite eternal being. He is in the 'eternal now,' which is beyond our comprehension. Thus I DO NOT draw the conclusion that God creates things to be as he foreknows them, which is what your question presumes. That is determinism, whether you understand that or not.I am pointing out something that is obvious to us all- God knew before he made this world what this world would be like and he made it any way.
Really?I did not say his "knowing" was anthropomorphic
Originally Posted by JonC:
I think that our understanding of God’s omniscience is by nature anthropomorphic
I could not agree more.
Yet your entire system rests upon the concept that God CHOSE to irresistibly save those He unconditionally CHOSE because this the the method He CHOSE to bring Himself the most Glory. Go figure.The Scripture no more reveals God making real choices than it reveals that God has all kinds of horns on his head and eyeballs in in the front and back of his head.
You said that He created the world to be exactly what he foreknew it would be, which is the same thing. The structure of your question has God's creating what He foreknows rather than God foreknowing the creatures that were freely created. There is a difference and its obvious you haven't come to understand this distinction, but hopefully I can introduce you to this common fallacy. No offense, but I think you are used to dealing with less than scholarly opponents on this matter. It's time to expand your horizons.I did not say that his knowing it determines it. You said that.
Are you saying you have NOT equated your problem with our problem, because that is ALL you have done this entire thread???
Your problem is a question of what God has DETERMINED and our problem is a question of what God has ALLOWED. That is the difference between God decretive and permissive will. Until you acknowledge this we are finished with this discussion, because we are just going around and around while you are avoiding the actual issue.
I'm saying that God's KNOWING something BEFORE is anthropomorphic because God is not on a before/after timeline like we are.
You are talking of God as if he is an all knowing man, not an infinite eternal being. He is in the 'eternal now,' which is beyond our comprehension. Thus I DO NOT draw the conclusion that God creates things to be as he foreknows them, which is what your question presumes. That is determinism, whether you understand that or not.
Really?
You agreed completely with JonC who clearly stated that God's omniscience is anthropomorphic and now you are denying it.
Yet your entire system rests upon the concept that God CHOSE to irresistibly save those He unconditionally CHOSE because this the the method He CHOSE to bring Himself the most Glory. Go figure.
You said that He created the world to be exactly what he foreknew it would be, which is the same thing.
hopefully I can introduce you to this common fallacy. No offense, but I think you are used to dealing with less than scholarly opponents on this matter. It's time to expand your horizons.
No. What I have not done is say a word about permissive will VS decretive will. That is not the subject of this thread.
Then stop implying that God MUST have created it as He foreknew it would be, as if his creating it is contingent upon his knowing it will happen...which whether you acknowledge it or not you continually do.Whether God's foreknowledge of what would happen CAUSED it to happen is a discussion for another thread.
And you are doing so by presuming we accept the above premise, but we don't. At least those scholars who've studied the subject don't.What this thread is about is what brings Calvinists and Arminians together- a common problem that neither of us can solve.
As explained numerous times, the concept of "God knew before" is an anthropormophic phrase, as you admitted. This is like saying God foreknows stuff as a man would (like a psychic) and thus the same logical finite conclusions can be drawn about God as would be true of a man. What is "before/after" in a place without time?The actual issue Skan is the fact that we both agree that God KNEW BEFORE HE MADE THE WORLD THAT IF HE MADE THIS WORLD EVIL WOULD EXIST AND BILLIONS WOULD BE DAMNED.
It is but you haven't realized it yet because you haven't been willing to acknowledge the distinction in our views. You are trying to equate our problems by equating our claims about how God has foreknown and created.
Then stop implying that God MUST have created it as He foreknew it would be, as if his creating it is contingent upon his knowing it will happen...which whether you acknowledge it or not you continually do.
Luke, don't you know that your argument is the basis of determinism?
The idea that God foreknew and then created it to be as he foreknew it, IS DETERMINISM. That is the foundational premise and if you don't understand that then we really can't continue our discussion.
And you are doing so by presuming we accept the above premise, but we don't. At least those scholars who've studied the subject don't.
As explained numerous times, the concept of "God knew before" is an anthropormophic phrase, as you admitted.
This is like saying God foreknows stuff as a man would (like a psychic) and thus the same logical finite conclusions can be drawn about God as would be true of a man. What is "before/after" in a place without time?
You said that NNE expect me is saying this, which leads me to conclude you haven't read much on this, which if fine.
The problem from your side is that you ultimately try to argue that there is a moral standard that transcends God to which the creature can hold God Himself accountable. From where did the definition and "origin" of this moral standard come if God is subject to it? ANY argument that says that God can be "wrong" if He does something just because a sinful, faulty, finite creature feels so is fundamentally flawed.To equate those two as being equal problems is a fallacy of the the greatest magnitude. And is the "YOU TOO" fallacy to which I was referring... You can't answer the problem with your system so you point to a PERCEIVED problem within mine instead, but our problem is not near as severe as your problem and in fact, our problem is ONLY a problem IF one refuses to appeal to mystery regarding divine knowledge as it relates to God's creation of time and finite creatures with morally accountable wills.