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Do the KJVO accept any other Translation really then?
- Thread starter JesusFan
- Start date
To add a little more to the conversation, there is no faith in the person to believe God's gift to man, the Lord Jesus Christ.
Only when the Holy Spirit uses the Word of God to show him he's a sinner in need of a Savoiur can man see who he is in the sight of God.
If he accepts that fact of who he is, then the Holy Spirit adds to him the faith to believe. It all comes from Him, and nothing from us.
37818
Well-Known Member
@Charlie24,
If I am not mistaken those two words are synonyms.
And knowledge of any kind one must have a faith or a belief in order to have it.
If I am not mistaken those two words are synonyms.
And knowledge of any kind one must have a faith or a belief in order to have it.
1 Cor. 2:14
"But the natural man (the unsaved man) receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned."
Man can choose his occupation, the home he lives in, the car he drives, etc., but he can't choose Christ, he is spiritually dead.
Faith to believe is of the spiritual realm, no man has it until it's granted of him from the Holy Spirit.
37818
Well-Known Member
Is a tautology.
Yes, we can call this a bad choice of words on my part!
Let's change that "to the ability to believe instead of "faith to believe."
Phil. 1:29
"For unto you it is given in the behalf of Christ, not only to believe on him, but also to suffer for his sake;"
Do you see from this verse that the "ability" to believe is given, it doesn't come from us!
So in a slang manner of speech (which I often do) we are given the "faith to believe."
From this verse, not only are we given the ability to believe, but through our belief in Him we are also given the ability to suffer as He suffered.
This spells out rewards for the believer. Remember Paul told us that ours works will be tried by fire and if they pass the test, we will be rewarded.
We are given the ability to believe on Him, we are given the ability to be rewarded for our service in His name.
Praise God! He has given us everything! and more than we could ever hope for in this life.!
Not to mention the life to come when we are as Christ, glorified, in a incorruptible body that will live forever. With our own mansion by the streets of gold, and even the promise that ours minds are not capable of knowing what he has prepared for us who love Him.
I'm ready to start shouting a little bit, Brother!
I don't see one, but the KJV is the only version I use.
I would have to look up the other versions to see what was said.
Saved421
Member
Don't bother reading other versions.
Just read the A.V, its a waste of time to read others.
It just makes me sick when I read them and those doubting footnotes.
Saved421
Member
The west needs to get back to this Bible, its so wonderful we have the freedom to pick any Bible we want to read and religion. Don't ever give up the Bible.
The most glorious fact that God has ever shown me from Scripture is that all blessing from the Lord, whatever they may be, flow from the Cross of Christ where He shed His blood for us.
Faith in what He did there for us is what opens that gate into eternity with Him.
Can't help but preach a little, I can feel His presence all around!
A real KJV has those same helpful marginal notes.
Which one of the hundreds of varying editions of the KJV is your final authority?
In effect are you making your own human assertion that the KJV is your final authority the final authority?
The KJV itself does not state nor teach that the word of God is bound to the textual criticism decisions, Bible revision decisions, and translation decisions of one exclusive group of Church of England critics in 1611.
According to a consistent, just application of the assertions written by Dave Reese and over eleven other KJV-only authors themselves, would the post-1900 Cambridge editions be a different Bible than the 1611 edition, than the revised 1629 Cambridge, than the revised 1638 Cambridge, and than the revised 1743 or 1762 or 1769 Cambridge? Do the added words, changed words, and different words in the post-1900 Cambridge editions mean that they are not actually the 1611 King James Bible? Can the assertions of KJV-only authors be taken seriously when they refuse to apply them consistently and justly to the varying editions of the KJV? Since the truth is consistent, can those KJV-only assertions be true when they cannot be applied consistently? Are KJV-only advocates blind to seeing the serious inconsistency in their major failure to apply their very own stated assertions consistently and justly? According to a consistent application of their own statements, the KJV has not been the exact same Bible for over 400 years. Do those KJV-only authors in effect refute their own stated KJV-only reasoning/teaching?
Here are the assertions of five of those KJV-only authors. Several KJV-only authors make some broad-sweeping assertions that they do not apply consistently and justly. Concerning the Open Bible edition of the KJV, Dave Reese claimed: "If words are changed, it is not the King James Version. It is another Bible" (The Book No One Can Read, p. 56). Concerning the New Scofield, Dave Reese asserted: “If words are changed, it is not the same text” (p. 53). Dave Reese asked: “If there is justification for changing some words, where do we stop?” (p. 56). Jim Ellis asked: "How could it be a King James Bible if it is different from the King James Bible?" (Only Two Bibles, p. 17). Attacking the idea that the New Scofield Reference Bible has the same basic text as the KJV, William Grady contended: "A lost man would laugh at the suggestion that a particular text could be promoted as the same text with even one alteration" (Final Authority, p. 311). Kelly Gallagher claimed: “Any true Christian would throw away a bible if ONE WORD was taken away or added to it” (The Perfect Bible, p. 58). David W. Norris asserted: “Bearing in mind that every single word carries with it the authority of the whole book and were one word missing the Bible would be incomplete and imperfect, we ought not to be surprised that subtracting of even a single word put in place by God or adding a word of our own incurs a penalty of eternal loss” (The Big Picture, pp. 260-261).
37818
Well-Known Member
Yes, of course.
Now let's follow it on through!
To whom is the ability to believe given?
Acts 3:18-19
"But those things, which God before had shewed by the mouth of all his prophets, that Christ should suffer, he hath so fulfilled.
Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, when the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord."
It's given to those who repent at the calling and conviction of the Holy Spirit so they can be converted.
37818
Well-Known Member
John 17:17, Sanctify them through thy truth: thy word is truth.
Romans 10:17, So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God.
Now the question that weighs so heavy on all these boards!
Does the Holy Spirit call all men to repentance with the Gospel, or does He call only a selected some to repentance?
2 Peter 3:9
"The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance."
"Any and All"