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before the fall?
Arminian foreknowledge? I personally do not know any Arminians with foreknowledge.n Arminian Foreknowledge, If god sees it, isn;t it already been determined?
Will be a new thread!
LOL! Are you that desperate to suggest voluntary offerings support your doctrinal theory of "free-will."? You need something far more substantial than that.No, we have OUR OWN free will.
Lev 1:3 If his offering be a burnt sacrifice of the herd, let him offer a male without blemish: he shall offer it of his own voluntary will at the door of the tabernacle of the congregation before the LORD.
LOL! Are you that desperate to suggest voluntary offerings support your doctrinal theory of "free-will."? You need something far more substantial than that.
No, I am not desperate, but YES, I am outright saying these offerings refute Total Inability. These offerings were a form of worship. Any man among the Jews could make them, and God himself said he would accept these offerings as an atonement for them.
That is salvation dude.
Lev 1:2 Speak unto the children of Israel, and say unto them, If any man of you bring an offering unto the LORD, ye shall bring your offering of the cattle, even of the herd, and of the flock.
3 If his offering be a burnt sacrifice of the herd, let him offer a male without blemish: he shall offer it of his own voluntary will at the door of the tabernacle of the congregation before the LORD.
4 And he shall put his hand upon the head of the burnt offering; and it shall be accepted for him to make atonement for him.
This deals directly with salvation and the forgiveness of sins, and God showed any man among the Jews could give an offering of his own free will, and that if he did so, God would accept his offering to make atonement for him.
This scripture utterly refutes total inability!
But don't take my word for it, look it up in the scriptures and read it yourself.
What difference to mankind nature happened as a result of the fall?
Were OT believers able to live right enough by their own will to merit approval of God?
can natural man receives things that are spiritual in a saving way, can they in their natural state hear and believe WITHOUT the aiding of the Spirit?
sinners can and do know God in same fashion as satan , but NOT in a saving way, as flesh cannot produce spiritual life in and by itself!
Boy, you sure ask a lot of questions.
To answer your first question, what fall? Where do the scriptures say man fell? You show me that and I'll read it, then I'll be able to answer your question.
Your second question, were OT believers able to live right by their own will to merit approval with God? Sure, Enoch walked with God, he was a very good man. The scriptures say Noah was perfect in his generations. Job was a very good man.
Third question, can natural men hear the spiritual and be saved without the aid of the Holy Spirit? Of course not, no man is born knowing of the true God or Jesus Christ. God must reveal himself to man before man can believe on him. God did this by inspiring holy men with his Holy Spirit to write down God's words that enabled men to trust in God. So, the answer is no, no man can be saved without the aid of the Holy Spirit.
Your fourth question is not a question, but a statement. You have already given your opinion.
No, we have OUR OWN free will.
Lev 1:3 If his offering be a burnt sacrifice of the herd, let him offer a male without blemish: he shall offer it of his own voluntary will at the door of the tabernacle of the congregation before the LORD.
You see, when God said that when ANY MAN among the Jews were to bring an offering to him, they were to bring it of THEIR OWN free will. They were not instructed to use Adam or Eve's or any other person's free will.
I am not sure Adam and Eve would have allowed someone to borrow their free will anyway, folks are funny about keeping their own free will.
I don't know what rendition of the Scriptures you are using, but Lev. 1 states:
2 “Speak to the sons of Israel and say to them, ‘When any man of you brings an offering to the Lord, you shall bring your offering of animals from the herd or the flock. 3 If his offering is a burnt offering from the herd, he shall offer it, a male without defect; he shall offer it at the doorway of the tent of meeting, that he may be accepted before the Lord. 4 He shall lay his hand on the head of the burnt offering, that it may be accepted for him to make atonement on his behalf.It says nothing of it being "of his own voluntary will."
Rather, the Hebrew wording speaks of it as "Young literal translation" - "at his pleasure."
Meaning at his timing, or not out of obligation it is brought to Jehovah.
The KJV/NKJV use "will" rather than "pleasure" - and some (as you seem to do) latch onto the verse and misinterpret the actual statement.
No, I am not desperate, but YES, I am outright saying these offerings refute Total Inability. These offerings were a form of worship. Any man among the Jews could make them, and God himself said he would accept these offerings as an atonement for them.
That is salvation dude.
Lev 1:2 Speak unto the children of Israel, and say unto them, If any man of you bring an offering unto the LORD, ye shall bring your offering of the cattle, even of the herd, and of the flock.
3 If his offering be a burnt sacrifice of the herd, let him offer a male without blemish: he shall offer it of his own voluntary will at the door of the tabernacle of the congregation before the LORD.
4 And he shall put his hand upon the head of the burnt offering; and it shall be accepted for him to make atonement for him.
This deals directly with salvation and the forgiveness of sins, and God showed any man among the Jews could give an offering of his own free will, and that if he did so, God would accept his offering to make atonement for him.
This scripture utterly refutes total inability!
But don't take my word for it, look it up in the scriptures and read it yourself.
Winman, you miss the place of OT and NT atonement if you think it means the "forgiveness of sins."
It means "reconciliation" and "covering."
The only "forgiveness of sins" is through the shed blood of Christ. It is a word translated "propitiation" in the NT and it was a one time sacrifice.
All uses of the word atonement throughout Scriptures (OT and NT) as applied to the sacrifices of the OT is that of reconciliation and were a "covering" (a temporary reconciliation) of the sin until the cross of Christ.
Salvation from the beginning of humankind to the last person saved has been, is and will always be through the shed blood of Christ (as portrayed through the sacrifices and offerings) who paid for all sin of all humankind, AND being reconciled to God.
God didn't save anyone any differently in the OT than He does in our day.
Adam Clarke said:He shall put his hand upon the head of the burnt-offering - By the imposition of hands the person bringing the victim acknowledged,
1.The sacrifice as his own.
2.That he offered it as an atonement for his sins.
3.That he was worthy of death because he had sinned, having forfeited his life by breaking the law.
4.That he entreated God to accept the life of the innocent animal in place of his own.
5.And all this, to be done profitably, must have respect to Him whose life, in the fullness of time, should be made a sacrifice for sin.
6.The blood was to be sprinkled round about upon the altar, Leviticus 1:5, as by the sprinkling of blood the atonement was made; for the blood was the life of the beast, and it was always supposed that life went to redeem life.
I am not saying the NKJV or the KJV have it wrong, I am saying that they used a word that is unfortunately not appropriate to the meaning that some attach.The King James Bible doesn't merely say "will" it says "his own voluntary will". That is about a perfect definition of free will as you can get.
I don't doubt for a second that other versions have altered this scripture.
But then folks will say no major doctrines are affected by the MVs. :laugh:
What?? I think you need to study, when God said this offering would be accepted as an atonement for the person making the offering, his sins were forgiven. It was a figure of Christ to come.
Again, you need to study. This sacrifice was to atone for one's sins. It was confessing your sins on the head of the sacrifice, and then the sacrifice was killed as your substitute.
This was absolutely an OT figure of Christ to come.
Note that ANY MAN could make this offering of his OWN VOLUTARY WILL, and God said he would ACCEPT it as ATONEMENT for the man.
This scripture destroys Total Inability.
Frankly, Winman,
You will continue to believe what you desire, no matter how often or to what measure you are shown differently.
Here is a simple word study.
When and How is the word "propitiation" used in the NT? It isn't part of the OT.
When and How is the word "atonement" used in both the OT and NT?
When you have accomplished that study, you will perhaps understand that what I have posted.
Until then....
You will disagree with anyone who posts the Scriptural truth on this topic - as you have historically shown.
No, we have OUR OWN free will.
before the fall?