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It seems to me that your position allows an individual to substitute his judgment for that of the church. Are you sure you want to carry that argument to its logical extreme.
I based my comment on I Cor 5:11
My understanding is that the Lord's Supper was often observed at the same time of the fellowship meal. Paul speaks of it in chapter 11.
I neglected to remark on this part of the post.
No, Paul is not discussing the Lord's Supper in this chapter nor this verse.
He is addressing a known and flagrantly shameful sin that mars before the public the testimony of the assembly.
The person is put out of the assembly and shunned (no fellowship) and therefore that makes the Lord's Supper unavailable to the person and therefore a mute argument in support of guard-ship over the ordinance by the assembly. For if it were applied to the ordinance, then the person would be allowed to sit in the assembly's presence - which that person is not.
I think I'm correct that the majority of us see water baptism as a pre-requisite for membership in a local church. I don't know of any Baptist church of any stripe which allows unbaptized people to be members. If I'm right, then it doesn't make sense to invite an unbaptized person to the Lord's table.
Paul had this to say in I Cor 10:17:
Paul is clearly referring to the body as a local congregation. He reinforces this in 12:27 when he refers to the congregation at Corinth as "YE are the body of Christ."
So, to me, if we require one ordinance--baptism-- as the door to local church membership, but do not require it for access to the other ordinance--the Lord's table--this is a glaring inconsistency.
The arguments for each side hang on the question, Is the LS a Christian ordinance or a church ordinance? Your answer will determine how much access you will allow to the Lord's table.
(Psst. It's a church ordinance. Pass it on).
So, what we have are two separate standards, one for membership and the other for observing the Lord's Supper. This is the logical extreme I had in mind.
We both agree that the church has the authority to disfellowship someone, the effect of which is to deny him access to the Lord's table.
If the individual is the sole arbiter of his right to the Lord's table, then that comes into conflict with the church's right to determine its membership.
This view would allow the offending member to demand the right to participate in communion, even though he is not welcome for fellowship.
It seems to me that one cannot have it both ways.
I think the unworthy manner Paul criticized in I Cor 11 shows the close relationship back then between the fellowship meal and the Lord's Supper.
I think the Corinthians were getting tipsy at the fellowship meal, and were mistreating the widows, eating like pigs and generally behaving boorishly. Then they had the gall to have the Lord's Supper on the heels of all that. On top of that, they were coming to the Lord's table with unresolved conflicts among them--which made the observance a sham in many ways.
That's how they were taking it unworthily. The adverb has nothing to do with their worthiness. They were not properly "discerning the Lord's body."