latterrain77
New Member
Hi Merrill. Your quote of Matt. 26: 29 won't work. The phrase "fruit of the vine" does NOT mean wine. The Greek word for "wine" is "oinos." The Greek for "fruit of the vine" is "gennema" which means "offspring" of the vine; grapes. Furthermore, the phrase "fruit of the vine" (gennema) could potentially mean ANY fruit, not necessarily grapes, but in any event does NOT mean "wine" (oinos).
Your mention of John 2 does NOT show that Jesus provided wine for Himself and a crowd for consumption. It shows that he turned water into wine for the purpose of illustrating that He was whom He said He was - which the servants quickly discovered (John 2: 9). In addition, the miraculous wine was ordered delivered to ONE person ONLY which was the governor of the feast (John 2: 8). Furthermore, John 2: 3-4 shows the LORD's angst at the request of those who WANTED wine (oinos) and, John 2: 3 shows that the wine was requested by "they," and on behalf of "they," but not "us." So, this verse only proves that "alcohol consumption" is desired by the worldly ("they") and not by believers ("US"). There is nothing in the text that shows the LORD or the "servants" (John 2: 9) partook of any wine (oinos). Quite the contrary.
Your quote of 1 Tim. 5: 23 is correct. Wine (oinos) could be used as a medicine. However, in our modern era of medicine we have things like Pepto Bismol and stronger medications that do the job better than wine (does wine even work as a medicine or was it's use just a placebo to distract the ill?). Furthermore, the 1 Tim. 5: 23 text makes it clear that even under that very limited circumstance, one could only use a LITTLE wine for ailments. The Greek word for "little" is "oligos" which means "puny." Puny means a "capful" at best. Accordingly, this verse hardly provides the "escape clause" that so many seek as a means to imbibe.
In the final conclusion, the Bible won't allow boozing for believers. Prov. 20: 1, Prov. 31: 4, etc, are very clear, and this truth is utterly unambiguous from the text. latterrain77
Your mention of John 2 does NOT show that Jesus provided wine for Himself and a crowd for consumption. It shows that he turned water into wine for the purpose of illustrating that He was whom He said He was - which the servants quickly discovered (John 2: 9). In addition, the miraculous wine was ordered delivered to ONE person ONLY which was the governor of the feast (John 2: 8). Furthermore, John 2: 3-4 shows the LORD's angst at the request of those who WANTED wine (oinos) and, John 2: 3 shows that the wine was requested by "they," and on behalf of "they," but not "us." So, this verse only proves that "alcohol consumption" is desired by the worldly ("they") and not by believers ("US"). There is nothing in the text that shows the LORD or the "servants" (John 2: 9) partook of any wine (oinos). Quite the contrary.
Your quote of 1 Tim. 5: 23 is correct. Wine (oinos) could be used as a medicine. However, in our modern era of medicine we have things like Pepto Bismol and stronger medications that do the job better than wine (does wine even work as a medicine or was it's use just a placebo to distract the ill?). Furthermore, the 1 Tim. 5: 23 text makes it clear that even under that very limited circumstance, one could only use a LITTLE wine for ailments. The Greek word for "little" is "oligos" which means "puny." Puny means a "capful" at best. Accordingly, this verse hardly provides the "escape clause" that so many seek as a means to imbibe.
In the final conclusion, the Bible won't allow boozing for believers. Prov. 20: 1, Prov. 31: 4, etc, are very clear, and this truth is utterly unambiguous from the text. latterrain77