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For if we are not sinners at birth, do not have the sin nature until we actually choose to sin, that means that we would have the capability to not sin as Jesus did, and be saved by our own good works?
For if we are not sinners at birth, do not have the sin nature until we actually choose to sin, that means that we would have the capability to not sin as Jesus did, and be saved by our own good works?
Here is an interesting article by Peter Enns. I do realize the polarizing nature of Dr. Enns. There is much, in what I have read from him that I wrestle with. This article is worthy of consideration.
http://www.patheos.com/blogs/peterenns/2013/02/5-old-testament-reasons-to-rethink-original-sin/
So how is this related to denying the cross?
Peter Enns, a member of Biologos. Peter Enns, canned from Westminster Philadelphia because of his unbiblical views. Peter Enns who is a proponent of theistic evolution and believes in the Genesis "myth". You mean THAT Peter Enns?
Peter Enns, a member of Biologos. Peter Enns, canned from Westminster Philadelphia because of his unbiblical views. Peter Enns who is a proponent of theistic evolution and believes in the Genesis "myth". You mean THAT Peter Enns?
Yes, that Peter Enns. I personally (proudly, without arrogance) have no problem with evolutionary models, including theistic evolution, although I lean more toward the Intelligent Design side of the equation. I did preface by saying that he (Dr. Enns) is polarizing in many ways. If that means you cannot read any commentary or thoughts by him, so be it.
Well, if he denies a historical fall and Adam, either jesus is right, or peter is!
I would bet on God for the win there!
Yes, that Peter Enns. I personally (proudly, without arrogance) have no problem with evolutionary models, including theistic evolution, although I lean more toward the Intelligent Design side of the equation. I did preface by saying that he (Dr. Enns) is polarizing in many ways. If that means you cannot read any commentary or thoughts by him, so be it.
IF we are not seen as being dead in oursins, if not sinners at birth, then we would logically be all right with God, at least until wechose to sin, but If jesus was "Just like us", why couldn't some get saved by good works, for IF we had no imputed sin nature, why not keep Law as He did and bypass the Cross?
That is a great drive by Yeshua 1. Certainly there might be some (or much) for you to find wrong about Dr. Enns ( I do as well) However, you could consider at times things he may if fact have to say, or questions to ask.
I have read his book....have you? I am not comfortable with his position on Adam being a historical person. But he does bring interesting questions and thoughts to debates and discussion.
George Burnap said:"If this doctrine is true, God did not tell man the true penalty, neither the truth, nor the whole truth, nor a hundredth part of the truth. To have told the whole truth, according to this hypothesis, He should have said, 'Because ye have done this, cursed be that moral nature which I have given you. Henceforth such is the change I make in your natures: that ye shall be, and your offspring, infinitely odious and hateful in my sight. The moment their souls shall go forth from my hand...if they are suffered to live, such shall be the diseased constitution of their moral natures: that they shall have no freedom to do one single good action, but everything they do shall be sin....What an awful blot would such a curse be on the first pages of Scripture!"6
We are specifically told that man will have to work very hard to maintain a living, and we are told that man will physically die and return to the dust, but we are not told that Adam's posterity would be cursed with a sin nature as a result of his sin.
First having a sin nature does not equal having sinned. Scripture is clear in Romans 5 that we have a sin nature imputed. But none of that leads to denying the cross no matter how you look at it. You are employing a begging the question fallacy.
Sure it does:
Rom 5:18 Therefore, as one trespass led to condemnation for all men, so one act of righteousness leads to justification and life for all men.
Albert Barnes said:For that - ἐφ ̓ ᾧ eph' hō. This expression has been greatly controverted; and has been very variously translated. Elsner renders it, "on account of whom." Doddridge, "unto which all have sinned." The Latin Vulgate renders it, "in whom (Adam) all have sinned." The same rendering has been given by Augustine, Beza, etc. But it has never yet been shown that our translators have rendered the expression improperly. The old Syriac and the Arabic agree with the English translation in this interpretation. With this agree Calvin, Vatablus, Erasmus, etc. And this rendering is sustained also by many other considerations.
Here you see the flawed Latin text I told you of that influenced Augustine.
(1) if ῳ ō be a relative pronoun here, it would refer naturally to death, as its antecedent, and not to man. But this would not make sense.
(2) if this had been its meaning, the preposition ἐν en would have been used; see the note of Erasmus on the place.
(3) it comports with the apostle's argument to state a cause why all died, and not to state that people sinned in Adam. He was inquiring into the cause why death was in the world; and it would not account or that to say that all sinned in Adam. It would require an additional statement to see how that could be a cause.
(4) as his posterity had not then an existence, they could not commit actual transgression. Sin is the transgression of the Law by a moral agent; and as the interpretation "because all have sinned" meets the argument of the apostle, and as the Greek favors that certainly as much as it does the other, it is to be preferred.
All have sinned - To sin is to transgress the Law of God; to do wrong. The apostle in this expression does not say that all have sinned in Adam, or that their nature has become corrupt, which is true, but which is not affirmed here; nor that the sin of Adam is imputed to them; but simply affirms that all people have sinned. He speaks evidently of the great universal fact that all people are sinners, He is not settling a metaphysical difficulty; nor does he speak of the condition of man as he comes into the world. He speaks as other men would; he addresses himself to the common sense of the world; and is discoursing of universal, well-known facts. Here is the fact - that all people experience calamity, condemnation, death. How is this to be accounted for? The answer is, "All have sinned." This is a sufficient answer; it meets the case. And as his design cannot be shown to be to discuss a metaphysical question about the nature of man, or about the character of infants, the passage should be interpreted according to his design, and should not be pressed to bear on that of which he says nothing, and to which the passage evidently has no reference. I understand it, therefore, as referring to the fact that people sin in their own persons, sin themselves - as, indeed, how can they sin in an other way? - and that therefore they die. If people maintain that it refers to any metaphysical properties of the nature of man, or to infants, they should not infer or suppose this, but should show distinctly that it is in the text. Where is there evidence of any such reference?
As you can see here, Barnes interprets Romans 5:12 to say all have personally sinned, and this is why death has passed on all men.
If your interpretation of this verse were correct (it isn't) then ALL men would be saved. If this verse is saying that condemnation is UNCONDITIONALLY imputed to all men because of Adam's sin, then likewise justification to life would be UNCONDITIONALLY imputed to all men because of Jesus's obedience.
This is another begging the question fallacy. One does not have to lead to the other. what is clear from that verse is that all men are led tocondemnation because of Adam's sin. We just cannot get around it.