Pastor_Bob said:Why, then, did they not "modernize" the language of the KJV in the examples you cited where the Geneva is more up-to-date?
Isn't the very point of this thread demonstrating the fact that they didn't always do that?
Perhaps the main reason that they did not was because of the first rule given the KJV translators [The ordinary Bible read in the Church, commonly called the Bishops' Bible, to be followed, and as little altered as the truth of the original will permit]. Some renderings may be in the KJV simply because the KJV translators left them there from the Bishops' Bible.
Thankfully, the KJV translators did seem to follow the Geneva Bible more often than the Bishops' Bible. Nevertheless, there were some other places were the text of the 1611 edition of the KJV could have been better if they had also followed the Geneva Bible there instead of keeping the rendering of the Bishops. In fact, there are a good number of times when later editors introduced changes into the text of the 1611 edition of the KJV that the change agreed with the text of the Geneva while the original 1611 rendering had been kept from the Bishops' Bible.