Does God ever change

[Alan Gross]

This is a sub-OP from another thread - as the discussion was getting off OP.

This was my question (post # 20) from this thread
1) What is the scriptural reference that God was against incest from the very beginning ?

2) Were Abram and Sara guilty of incest since they were half-siblings

3)
a. If Cains wife was not his sister - then how did she appear - -
b. If she had been created separately - then would she also have been tempered by the
the devil -to loose her sinless condition?
c. and since Eve was created from Adams Rib- was she not then part of Adams DNA - and
thus did they commit incest?

and robycop3 answered



A quick look - shows that most - if not all States/commonwealths find that incest with a half-sibling is illegal.

RC states in post 21 that " God doesn't change"
OR
does he????

In the OT - God commanded the Children of Israel to be circumcised (wait- that was a change - as Adam and the next dozen or generations were not commanded to be circumcised. And in the NT - there is not requirement to be circumcisee- so - God changed twice.

In the OT - someone who committed adultery was to be stoned.
In the NT - Jesus said to go and sin no more.

So Does God change?


Also I am still waiting on RC to answer questions 1 & 3

God Says in Hebrews chapter 1 that Cain got his wife out of a tree.....

Ah, well that is the Adam Schiff version, anyway.

Here is God Speaking regarding His Instrumentality of Administering The One Eternal Covenant of Grace, in different 'economies' :

Hebrews 1:1 "God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,

2 "Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son,"

 

[Salty]

He went to a KJO forum.

can we go?

God Says in Hebrews chapter 1 that Cain got his wife out of a tree.....

Ah, well that is the Adam Schiff version, anyway.

Interesting - the Salty version says the exact same thing.

 

[David Kent]

can we go?

Certainly

Archaisms in the KJV.

See the last three posts on the fifth page

 

[Alan Gross]

I think we need to ask.

Why, Adam and Eve? Before the foundation of the world there was going to be redemption, from death, brought about through sin, by blood, wherein there was the soul, being, of the flesh, which would come from a virgin, woman.

That's before the foundation of the world. That was already going to take place.

Were Adan and Eve created, specifically, for the purpose of that seed of the virgin woman, because of an already present problem in Genesis 1:2 or a future developing problem?

The future developing problem would be the need for redemption? Who was already present at Genesis 1:2 that would be directly involved in the future developing problem? Would the line to the seed of the virgin need to be incest free?

By what means would the present problem in Genesis 1:2 be destroyed along with his works?

BTW I believe why Canaan was cursed is because he was the product of Ham and Mrs Noah. Incest.....

The material Universe was not yet in the form to function as God eventually Finished it, for Lifeforms, and ultimately Adam and Eve, and the propagation of The Human Race.

That is what we know and are shown later from Genesis 1:2 "And the earth was without form, and void; and darkness was upon the face of the deep. And the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters."

Placing other ideas in there when we don't see them is 'arguing from silence', right?

...

The Purposes of God, in Allowing His Son to be Glorified as The Redeemer of His children, as the result of Adam being Created and Falling into sin is God's Eternal Activity He Chose to Do, in His Mind and Will.

We Worship Him as Being The God He Revealed as this and Love Him.

He is God.