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Does God ever permit divorce?

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paidagogos

Active Member
Originally posted by Me4Him:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by rjprince:
No one ever responded to this, so I repeat...

</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by paidagogos:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Divorce is sin. Any man who abandons his spouse is sinning even if he doesn't remarry--he has broken the lifetime covenant.
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</font>[/QUOTE]Sorry. I thougnt that God said that Joseph was going to divorce Mary BECAUSE he was a JUST man. Thought the word there was dikaios, righteous. Of course, that could not be, since divorce is always a sin...


Mt 1:19 Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily.
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</font>[/QUOTE]Jews customs were what most would call "strange" today, as proof of a woman's virginity, the bed sheet with the blood from the broke "hymen" would be displayed at the city gate.

And as proof of our "Virginity" (Saved) the blood of the lamb will be displayed before God. </font>[/QUOTE]I don't think you'll find this in Scripture.
 
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paidagogos

Active Member
Originally posted by rjprince:
No one ever responded to this, so I repeat...

</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by paidagogos:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Divorce is sin. Any man who abandons his spouse is sinning even if he doesn't remarry--he has broken the lifetime covenant.
Click to expand...
</font>[/QUOTE]Sorry. I thougnt that God said that Joseph was going to divorce Mary BECAUSE he was a JUST man. Thought the word there was dikaios, righteous. Of course, that could not be, since divorce is always a sin...


Mt 1:19 Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily.
Click to expand...
</font>[/QUOTE]In Matthew 1:19, the word δικαιος is correctly translated either righteous or just. In this context and sense, just is better when considered in reference to law. Joseph was a just man in the sense that he was fair, honest and willing to obey the prevailing Jewish law. Regarding the divorce question, Joseph would have been functioning under the OT law of Deuteronomy 24.
 
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lgpruitt

New Member
Not saying that we, as Christians, do things intentionally to push the envelope. If I did....I wouldn't have seriously asked the above question. I mean this pure-heartedly. Don't we have the God of 2nd chances?
 
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Me4Him

New Member
Originally posted by paidagogos:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Me4Him:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by rjprince:
No one ever responded to this, so I repeat...

</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by paidagogos:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Divorce is sin. Any man who abandons his spouse is sinning even if he doesn't remarry--he has broken the lifetime covenant.
Click to expand...
</font>[/QUOTE]Sorry. I thougnt that God said that Joseph was going to divorce Mary BECAUSE he was a JUST man. Thought the word there was dikaios, righteous. Of course, that could not be, since divorce is always a sin...


Mt 1:19 Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily.
Click to expand...
</font>[/QUOTE]Jews customs were what most would call "strange" today, as proof of a woman's virginity, the bed sheet with the blood from the broke "hymen" would be displayed at the city gate.

And as proof of our "Virginity" (Saved) the blood of the lamb will be displayed before God. </font>[/QUOTE]I don't think you'll find this in Scripture. </font>[/QUOTE]Re 14:4 These are they which were not defiled with women; for they are virgins.

Heb 9:22 and without shedding of blood is no remission. (of sin)

1Co 12:27 Now ye are the body of Christ,

All Jewish customs apply to scripture, in some manner.
 
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