Does God show partiality?

[Winman]

Don't need to do so. Scripture tells us [repeating a couple]:

Acts 10:34. Then Peter opened his mouth, and said, Of a truth I perceive that God is no respecter of persons:

Yes, except you ignore the very next verse;

35 But in every nation he that feareth him, and worketh righteousness, is accepted with him.

This verse says those who fear God and work righteousness are accepted with him. Hardly unconditional.

Romans 2:11. For there is no respect of persons with God.

Here you left out the preceding verses.

6 Who will render to every man according to his deeds:
7 To them who by patient continuance in well doing seek for glory and honour and immortality, eternal life:
8 But unto them that are contentious, and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness, indignation and wrath,
9 Tribulation and anguish, upon every soul of man that doeth evil, of the Jew first, and also of the Gentile;
10 But glory, honour, and peace, to every man that worketh good, to the Jew first, and also to the Gentile:

God will render to every man according to his deeds, again, hardly unconditional.

The nature of fallen mankind:

Romans 3:23. For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;

Ecclesiastes 7:20. For there is not a just man upon earth, that doeth good, and sinneth not.

Isaiah 64:6. But we are all as an unclean thing, and all our righteousnesses are as filthy rags; and we all do fade as a leaf; and our iniquities, like the wind, have taken us away

Yes, ALL men are sinners, and the Lord had laid on him the iniquity of us ALL. This refutes Limited Atonement.

And then there is this:

Ephesians 1:3-6
3. Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ:
4. According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love:
5. Having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will,
6. To the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made us accepted in the beloved.

We are chosen "in him", that is, a person is chosen when he places trust in Jesus and is baptized into his body.

I suggest you take it up with God if you have a problem with these Scripture. A hint: These Scripture show why election is unconditional.

Oh, you will stand before God some day and answer to him, but the scriptures DO NOT show election unconditional.

 

[Greektim]

Greektim, do you feel that those of us not holding to DoG, feel ourselves elevated at all above the level of "scum"?

Not necessarily... no. But, the inference from your theology could arise - i.e. man is not so scummy as to come to God of his own volition. But that is only by way of inference.

 

[Greektim]

You can't have it two ways. You can't have God choosing people based on nothing and it not be random. Saying that he chooses based upon "His will" is a cop out. If you insist on saying it is just based on "His will", then his will is either random or based on some conditions.

You can't have it both ways. Either there are conditions, or it is random.

I don't see this as 2 ways. I am not saying that God chose based on nothing. He chose based on himself. It was not random but for his glory. There were not conditions but grace. Your either/or scenario is not adequately representing what myself and others have been saying.

 

[quantumfaith]

I don't see this as 2 ways. I am not saying that God chose based on nothing. He chose based on himself. It was not random but for his glory. There were not conditions but grace. Your either/or scenario is not adequately representing what myself and others have been saying.[/QUOTE]

This particular sentiment is both expressed and assumed by those on both sides here in BB land. :thumbs:

 

[Greektim]

I don't see this as 2 ways. I am not saying that God chose based on nothing. He chose based on himself. It was not random but for his glory. There were not conditions but grace. Your either/or scenario is not adequately representing what myself and others have been saying.[/QUOTE]

This particular sentiment is both expressed and assumed by those on both sides here in BB land. :thumbs:

True enough, but this is demonstrable in this case. We are saying God chooses based on himself. Matt wade interprets that as God chooses based on nothing or at random. He then offers an either/or scenario which is not at all what we presented. His logic almost seems to say that God's will is random/arbitrary or a non-sequitur/nothing at all.

 

[nodak]

Scripture does tell us "elect according to foreknowledge." But it doesn't tell us what God foreknew.

Enough for me to know both Arminians and Calvinists recognize God initiates and completes salvation.

Sometimes we argue this stuff or the number of angels that can fit on the head of a pin rather than evangelize.

Wow--just stepped on my own toes!

Edited to add: the reformed person sees God regenerating, part of which is giving the faith to receive Christ by grace. The wesleyan sees God as giving man the faith to receive Christ by grace, thus bringing regeneration.

Maybe both just describing the part of the elephant they see.

Either way, God gave the necessary grace, the salvation, and gets all the glory.

 

[Yeshua1]

For the Calvinists: How do you fit the belief in Unconditional Election with verses like these?

why did God select/chose out from ALL other nations and ethnic groups of the earthb at the time isreal, to be His covenant people?

 

[OldRegular]

Oh, you will stand before God some day and answer to him, but the scriptures DO NOT show election unconditional.

NO! Winman, Jesus Christ took all my sins away, cast them into the depths of the sea.

 

[OldRegular]

Edited to add: The wesleyan sees God as giving man the faith to receive Christ by grace, thus bringing regeneration.

Don't know about wesleyan's but some on this Board believe that the faith that saves is inherent in man. That essentially makes man the author of his salvation.

 

[Greektim]

Scripture does tell us "elect according to foreknowledge." But it doesn't tell us what God foreknew.

Actually, I think this passage needs to be rethought here.

1 Pet. 1:1-2

1Pe 1:1 Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who are elect exiles of the dispersion in Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia,
1Pe 1:2 according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, in the sanctification of the Spirit, for obedience to Jesus Christ and for sprinkling with his blood: May grace and peace be multiplied to you.

or in Greek

1Pe 1:1 Πέτρος, ἀπόστολος ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ, ἐκλεκτοῖς παρεπιδήμοις διασπορᾶς Πόντου, Γαλατίας, Καππαδοκίας, ᾿Ασίας καὶ Βιθυνίας,
1Pe 1:2 κατὰ πρόγνωσιν Θεοῦ πατρός, ἐν ἁγιασμῷ Πνεύματος, εἰς ὑπακοὴν καὶ ῥαντισμὸν αἵματος ᾿Ιησοῦ Χριστοῦ· χάρις ὑμῖν καὶ εἰρήνη πληθυνθείη.

Notice how many words are between "elect" and "according to the foreknowledge". Not that such an arguments settles the case, but it does demonstrate the other options that the prepositional phrase "according to foreknowledge" could refer.

Being one of the "exiles" could be according to foreknowledge. It could be the Diaspora that is according to foreknowledge. It could even be limited to those believers who are a part of the Diaspora that is according to foreknowledge. Or, according to foreknowledge could refer to the locations listed. This is the closest antecedent to the phrase "according to foreknowledge". The exegetical options are numerous.

 

[Yeshua1]

Don't know about wesleyan's but some on this Board believe that the faith that saves is inherent in man. That essentially makes man the author of his salvation.

to get there, have to refute the notion of original Sin, and that God finds us in adam, and spiritually dead as direct result of the fall!