Does modern KJV-only reasoning possibly display arrogance?

[Logos1560]

Bible believers do not merely use the scriptures, they believe the scriptures.

You men who promote and teach that God had something to do with all these translations and paraphrases in the same language are teaching that the message is what is important, not the words that conveys the message. This is arrogance and it is not what God has said in the KJV. .

Do KJV-only advocates seem to assume or claim that they alone are "Bible believers"? Would that be an arrogant assumption?

Do KJV-only advocates suggest that they alone believe the scriptures and that anyone who is not KJV-only does not believe the scriptures?

Were the KJV translators supposedly arrogant for suggesting that multiple, varying pre-1611 English Bibles were all the word of God translated into English even if they may have some blemishes or imperfections?

Were the Church of England makers of the KJV supposedly arrogant to make yet another English Bible translation when several good English Bibles translations were already available?

Did God say that He wrote and directly inspired the words in the 1611 edition of the KJV?

Did God say in the KJV that the word of God is bound to the textual criticism decisions, Bible revision decisions, and translation decisions of one exclusive group of Church of England critics in 1611?

 

[alexander284]

Excellent topic for discussion, sir!

 

[Salty]

AND LETS STAY ON SUBJECT !!!

 

[alexander284]

In short: I believe such reasoning can, indeed, "possibly display" a certain type of "arrogance."

 

[Deacon]

Arrogance, perhaps

Intransigence and rigidity, definitely

Rob

 

[alexander284]

Seven good questions to ponder.