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isn't it that original sin washed away by the Rite, and person is regenerated/saved by the Baptism?
isn't it that original sin washed away by the Rite, and person is regenerated/saved by the Baptism?
We teach that baptism is an outward sign of an inward grace. What you said is accurate, but also the person receives the Holy Spirit at baptism, so it is baptism of water and Spirit. Also there are exceptions, and we recognize that people are sometimes regenerated and have the Holy Spirit before they actually receive the sacrament of baptism.
Paul completely repudiates this idea in Romans 4:7-11. Rome in its CCC clearly and unequivocally states that circumcision is an Old Testament example of a sacrament as an outward sign of an inward grace and in particular that the circumcision of Christ at eight days old is the equivilent Old Testament counter part of baptism.
Paul completely shreds this idea in Romans 4:7-11 and condemns it as heresy.
The subject of Romans 4:7-11 was whether gentile converts to Christianity had to be circumcised.
We teach that baptism is an outward sign of an inward grace. What you said is accurate, but also the person receives the Holy Spirit at baptism, so it is baptism of water and Spirit. Also there are exceptions, and we recognize that people are sometimes regenerated and have the Holy Spirit before they actually receive the sacrament of baptism.
No, that is not the subject of Romans 4:7-11. The subject of Romans 4:7-11 is why justification before God is by faith "wiithout works (v. 6). Romans 4:7-11 proves that justification is not through divine ordinances and it proves that circumcision is not a sacrament. Your quote of Colossians 2:11 proves the relationship between circumcision and baptism in regard to the Old Covenant ordinance relationship to the New Covenant ordinance. Both equally were outward symbols of regeneration.
What Paul proves in Romans 4:7-11 is that Justification of Abraham before God PRECEDED the external ordinance and therefore justification can be obtained by both Jews and gentiles WITHOUT divine ordinances.
Paul completely repudiates this idea in Romans 4:7-11. Rome in its CCC clearly and unequivocally states that circumcision is an Old Testament example of a sacrament as an outward sign of an inward grace and in particular that the circumcision of Christ at eight days old is the equivilent Old Testament counter part of baptism.
Paul completely shreds this idea in Romans 4:7-11 and condemns it as heresy.
So it is with Baptism it is the sign and the seal of the new covenant. as Paul says in Col.And he received circumcision as a sign, a seal of the righteousness that he had by faith while he was still uncircumcised. So then, he is the father of all who believe but have not been circumcised, in order that righteousness might be credited to them.
Which peter saysIn him you were also circumcised with a circumcision not performed by human hands. Your whole self ruled by the flesh was put off when you were circumcised by[c] Christ, 12 having been buried with him in baptism
were saved through water, 21 and this water symbolizes baptism that now saves you also—not the removal of dirt from the body but the pledge of a clear conscience toward God.[e] It saves you by the resurrection of Jesus Chris
Quite right.
That doesn't dispute water baptism. Note So it is with Baptism it is the sign and the seal of the new covenant.
Therefore, just substitute the term baptism for circumcision and you will see it is a complete repudiation of the Roman doctrine of sacraments:
8 Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin.
9 ¶ Cometh this blessedness then upon the circumcision/baptized only, or upon the uncircumcision/unbaptzed also? for we say that faith was reckoned to Abraham for righteousness.
10 How was it then reckoned? when he was in circumcision/baptism, or in uncircumcision/unbaptism? Not in circumcision/baptism, but in uncircumcision/unbaptism.
11 And he received the sign of circumcision/baptism, a seal of the righteousness of the faith which he had yet being uncircumcised/unbaptized: that he might be the father of all them that believe, though they be not circumcised/baptized; that righteousness might be imputed unto them also:
12 And the father of circumcision/baptism to them who are not of the circumcision/baptized only, but who also walk in the steps of that faith of our father Abraham, which he had being yet uncircumcised/unbaptized.
The CCC specifically using the circumcision of Christ at eight days old compares that as equal to baptism under the New Covenant in regard to what a sacrament is.
If I have to go through the above text to prove it repudiates the Roman Catholic Concept of sacraments then either you are incapable of reading or incapable of understanding what you are reading.
Actually the seal to Christians for today per the Apostle Paul is the seal of the HS within us!
the RCC takes the OT Old Covenant view of baptism as being the equivalent of rite of circuncision...
problem is that the Bible clearly teaches that water baptism is to be administered to believing persons, alread have been saved by faith/grace alone, as the water is a symbol/type to illustrate what God already had done to the person, NOT as part of getting the person saved!
The Old Covenant ceremonial religious laws are TYPES of the New Covenant salvation (Heb. 10:1-4).
Circumcision is a type of regeneration and this is made clear even in the old Testament when God says many times that he wished their hearts were circumcised, meaning the flesh had been cut off and a new heart given (Deut. 30:6: Ezek. 36:26).
Infants were circumcised at eight days old. This is a type of being born again as all Christians regardless of physical age begin as spiritual infants when they are born of God (Jn. 3:1-11). Eight is the numerical symbol of new beginning.
Hence, both circumcision and baptism both convey symbolically the new birth (Col. 2:11) but neither literally regenerate anyone (Rom. 4:7-11; 1 Pet. 3:21).
Again it doesn't repudiate it. Or else you are suggesting Paul contradicts himself in colosians and contradicts peter. No one suggest that faith is also required for Baptism to be efficacious. That is what Paul is actually saying.Therefore, just substitute the term baptism for circumcision and you will see it is a complete repudiation of the Roman doctrine of sacraments:
Circumcison though establish the person as being part/under the Old Covenant between God and nation Isreal, while water baptism symbol of already accomplished work of the HS to save the person getting baptised!
Again it doesn't repudiate it.
Or else you are suggesting Paul contradicts himself in colosians and contradicts peter.
Therefore, just substitute the term baptism for circumcision and you will see it is a complete repudiation of the Roman doctrine of sacraments:
Now you're substituting words in scripture??? Since when is that a valid method of exegesis?
Rev:18 I warn everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this scroll: If anyone adds anything to them, God will add to that person the plagues described in this scroll. 19 And if anyone takes words away from this scroll of prophecy, God will take away from that person any share in the tree of life and in the Holy City, which are described in this scroll.
Again it doesn't repudiate it. Or else you are suggesting Paul contradicts himself in colosians and contradicts peter. No one suggest that faith is also required for Baptism to be efficacious. That is what Paul is actually saying.