Thinkingstuff
Active Member
Why when I already disproved it?It emphatically, clearly and unambigously repudiates it! You cannot possibly interpet it HONESTLY in any other way! Challenge me to prove it!
What does the passage actually say?
Circumcision is a sign and seal of faith already had. Circumcision is the sign and the seal of the old covenant. Next Paul saysAnd he received circumcision as a sign, a seal of the righteousness that he had by faith while he was still uncircumcised
Since the old covenant shows that the sign and seal were the outward evidence of the inward faith that Abraham is father of all who have faith but haven't the old covenant sign or seal. Next Paul saysSo then, he is the father of all who believe but have not been circumcised, in order that righteousness might be credited to them.
Next that Paul then expands to say that Abraham is the father of both groups. then Paul discourses about the law and that the law is of no use because it wasn't by that that made Abraham righteous but his faith. He doesn't say the sign and seal of the covenant is wrong but insistAnd he is then also the father of the circumcised who not only are circumcised but who also follow in the footsteps of the faith that our father Abraham had before he was circumcised.
Thus the promise of circumsision is only validated by faith and grace guarantees the promice of the sign and seal. Which makes sense with Pauls discourse in ColosiansTherefore, the promise comes by faith, so that it may be by grace and may be guaranteed to all Abraham’s offspring
In him you were also circumcised with a circumcision not performed by human hands. Your whole self ruled by the flesh was put off when you were circumcised by[c] Christ, 12 having been buried with him in baptism, in which you were also raised with him through your faith in the working of God, who raised him from the dead.