Draw = Taught = hear and learn - Jn. 6:45

[The Biblicist]

You contribute nothing. All you know how to do is to tell anyone who disagrees with you is that their logic is wrong. Thats it! Nothing more. Oh wait then you have the audacity to tell other people what their logic is on things they have not discussed.Your posts are consistently inflammatory. When you actually contribute to any discussion in a reasonable manner you may get a reasonable response.

You incapable of responding to the evidences and so your only defense is bitterness, insults and false accusations in a clear attempt to derail this thread.

You are so full of hatred and it flows through all your words. Don't you have anything better to do than make personal attacks on people? YOu obvously are incapable of reasonable discussion or capable of responding to mere expository and exegetical comments as that is all I have provided for the last ten posts.

If you cannot make reasonable comments on the threads why become a pawn of Satan to sow hatred, false accusations, insults? Surely you cannot justify your words as "spiritual" and Christ-like?

 

[The Biblicist]

"

Taught of God​

​

"​

Is it possible to claim you have been "taught" if you neither have "heard" the teacher or "learned" from a teacher? No!

Is it possible to claim you have taught "ALL" if SOME have never "heard" you speak or "learned" from you? No!

Therefore, for "all" to be "taught of God" demands that "EVERY MAN" must have "heard" and have "learned" of God or else "ALL" have not been taught of God.

Here is the exegetical problem for Winman and James. Jesus demands that "EVERY MAN" who has "heard" and "learned" comes to him. NONE fail to come to Him that have been "TAUGHT" of God if teaching includes hearing and learning.

This not only demonstrastes their interpretation of this text is theological based instead of exegetical based but these facts completely repudiate their theology. It demands that "ALL" equals "EVERY MAN" in verse 45 or NONE have been taught by God.

This also demonstrates that verse 45 is further explanatory of verse 44 and what it means to be drawn by the Father. Drawing by the Father must refer to INTERNAL influence by the Father that brings them to Christ in faith because Christ does not promise to raise unbeleivers to life. To be drawn by the Father is to be "taught" by the Father and teaching requires they have both "heard" and "learned" of the Father. The latter "learned" includes obedience which results in coming to the Son.

This whole context defends that faith is the work of God (v. 29) explained in God giving, drawing/teaching so that a person comes to Christ in faith. This is the effectual call clearly taught elsewhere in Scripture (1 Cor. 1:26-31; Rom. 8:28-30; etc.).

Jesus said that the PLURAL "prophets" said this:

And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the LORD: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the LORD: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more. - Jer. 31:34


This passage is quoted by the writer of hebrews (Heb. 8; 10) and called the "new" covenant which not only will be applied to Israel IN THE FUTURE but is applied to the Hebrew Christians being written to as the "new" covenant (Heb. 10:15-17). It is contrasted to the "old" covenant and described as the "new" covenant fulfilled by the sacrifice of Christ as our High Priest (Heb. 8-10). Hence, "ALL" in John 6:45 refers to the covenant seed of promise or all those "given" to Christ (Rom. 4:16; Jn. 17:3) or the elect.

In the above post we present simple exposition based upon sound exegetical principles. What response do we receive from those who disagree with our expositon? Do we receive any kind of expository based responses? No! We receive personal attacks, personal insults and words full of hatred. That should tell the readers quite a bit about the other view point and those who embrace it. If they had the truth, they would not be attacking my person but providing exegetical based reasons why my exposition is wrong. Do I make personal insutls about them in any of these posts? no!

 

[The Biblicist]

"

Taught of God​

​

"​

Is it possible to claim you have been "taught" if you neither have "heard" the teacher or "learned" from a teacher? No!

Is it possible to claim you have taught "ALL" if SOME have never "heard" you speak or "learned" from you? No!

Therefore, for "all" to be "taught of God" demands that "EVERY MAN" must have "heard" and have "learned" of God or else "ALL" have not been taught of God.

Here is the exegetical problem for Winman and James. Jesus demands that "EVERY MAN" who has "heard" and "learned" comes to him. NONE fail to come to Him that have been "TAUGHT" of God if teaching includes hearing and learning.

This not only demonstrastes their interpretation of this text is theological based instead of exegetical based but these facts completely repudiate their theology. It demands that "ALL" equals "EVERY MAN" in verse 45 or NONE have been taught by God.

This also demonstrates that verse 45 is further explanatory of verse 44 and what it means to be drawn by the Father. Drawing by the Father must refer to INTERNAL influence by the Father that brings them to Christ in faith because Christ does not promise to raise unbeleivers to life. To be drawn by the Father is to be "taught" by the Father and teaching requires they have both "heard" and "learned" of the Father. The latter "learned" includes obedience which results in coming to the Son.

This whole context defends that faith is the work of God (v. 29) explained in God giving, drawing/teaching so that a person comes to Christ in faith. This is the effectual call clearly taught elsewhere in Scripture (1 Cor. 1:26-31; Rom. 8:28-30; etc.).

Jesus said that the PLURAL "prophets" said this:

And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the LORD: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the LORD: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more. - Jer. 31:34


This passage is quoted by the writer of hebrews (Heb. 8; 10) and called the "new" covenant which not only will be applied to Israel IN THE FUTURE but is applied to the Hebrew Christians being written to as the "new" covenant (Heb. 10:15-17). It is contrasted to the "old" covenant and described as the "new" covenant fulfilled by the sacrifice of Christ as our High Priest (Heb. 8-10). Hence, "ALL" in John 6:45 refers to the covenant seed of promise or all those "given" to Christ (Rom. 4:16; Jn. 17:3) or the elect.

Ommission of "thy children" from Quotation​

Jn. 6:45 It is written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of God. Every man therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the Father, cometh unto me.

Isa. 54:13 And all thy children shall be taught of the LORD; and great shall be the peace of thy children.

Jesus purposely omitted "thy children" from his quotation. Why? I believe he was speaking of a principle that exceeded merely a Jewish audiance but that characterized salvation of all the elect and did not want to be understood as limited in a Jewish context. Second, the Isaiah passage and other related passages contextually referred to the end times when "all" Israel would be saved and yet Christ knew the principle applied to anyone saved at any time. This is also why he used the generic "him" and "every man" and "man" instead of racial terms.

The "all" of verse 45 is the same "all" of verses 37 and 39 as in all cases the same results are they "all" come to Christ in faith irregardless of race. That is also the why he used the same Greek word in John 12:32 as used in verse 45 in the anathous construct to include the "Greeks" in that context who were wanting to see Jesus. The anarthous construct would literally read "all kinds of men" (masculine) thus inclusive of the Greeks wishing to see Christ which gave rise to this statement in the context. The "all" of John 12:32 is the same "all" of John 6:37,39, 45.