Calvin -
I didn't have to dig any deeper for those Scriptures than the ones that support light drinking - that which falls short of drunkenness. The Scriptures I cited are just as prevelant as the opposing view.
I have not denied that the wine Jesus drank had alcoholic content. You are reading a presupposition into my post that is not there.
As for why Paul told Timothy to drink a little wine, it is obviously, in context, medical advice. The man probably suffered dispepsia or perhaps even an ulcer. There is no doubt that alcohol has medicinal value. That is not the point. Because Timothy didn't have Pepto-Bismal, should we refrain from the use of it?
Whether the situations were different for the Passages I cited seems rather irrelevant. For whatever reason, God chose to preserve those parts of the text along with all the others. The reasons for the abstinence are cited right there in the verses I gave.
Are those who are allergic to wine to be ostracized from the Lord's Supper? That seems to be a bit of a stretch for those who worship in Spirit. Besides, you're talking to a sober alcoholic. For me wine is a stumbling block. Am I to be left with a choice of abstaining from the Table or face the potential of relapse?
Look at 1Corinthians 11:26. The intention of the Lord's Supper is for remembrance - to proclaim the Lord's death until He returns.
Be careful trying to stay too literal to the letter of the New Testament. You will soon have yourself painted into a corner. That was the mistake the Pharisees made. They were so concerned about adhering to literalness that they missed the intent of the Law.
There are various Baptist sects that do use wine, the Primitives come to mind. They also refrain from instrumental music, practice feet washing, and do not believe in seminary education for their pastors. Are variations from these practices also to be condemned by the same logic of following literalness?
I didn't have to dig any deeper for those Scriptures than the ones that support light drinking - that which falls short of drunkenness. The Scriptures I cited are just as prevelant as the opposing view.
I have not denied that the wine Jesus drank had alcoholic content. You are reading a presupposition into my post that is not there.
As for why Paul told Timothy to drink a little wine, it is obviously, in context, medical advice. The man probably suffered dispepsia or perhaps even an ulcer. There is no doubt that alcohol has medicinal value. That is not the point. Because Timothy didn't have Pepto-Bismal, should we refrain from the use of it?
Whether the situations were different for the Passages I cited seems rather irrelevant. For whatever reason, God chose to preserve those parts of the text along with all the others. The reasons for the abstinence are cited right there in the verses I gave.
Yes, I do differently. Wine was used according to the text but the signifigance is not that it is wine, but that it represents the blood of Christ, the final death knell to the believer's death to sin. Christ didn't say, "Drink this wine," He said, "This is the covenant in my blood..."Can we agree that Jesus drank wine with alcohol content? And that he did this during the Last Supper? You would do differently?
Are those who are allergic to wine to be ostracized from the Lord's Supper? That seems to be a bit of a stretch for those who worship in Spirit. Besides, you're talking to a sober alcoholic. For me wine is a stumbling block. Am I to be left with a choice of abstaining from the Table or face the potential of relapse?
Look at 1Corinthians 11:26. The intention of the Lord's Supper is for remembrance - to proclaim the Lord's death until He returns.
Be careful trying to stay too literal to the letter of the New Testament. You will soon have yourself painted into a corner. That was the mistake the Pharisees made. They were so concerned about adhering to literalness that they missed the intent of the Law.
There are various Baptist sects that do use wine, the Primitives come to mind. They also refrain from instrumental music, practice feet washing, and do not believe in seminary education for their pastors. Are variations from these practices also to be condemned by the same logic of following literalness?