Each Eschatological view.

[Lodic]

We disagree. Again I am of the persuasion only what Jesus said in Matthew 24:1-2 refers to 70AD. What Jesus answered His disciples in Matthew ,24 was about His second appearing. Hebrews 9:28. Not 70AD.

Why would Jesus change the setting of His answer? Why would He confuse His disciples by this paradigm shift? There is nothing in the passage to indicate that He switched the timing of His answer. "They will hand you (not them) over to persecution", "when you (not them) see the abomination of desolation", etc. This clearly refers to the generation of the guys He was speaking to, not a future generation. The Bible was written for us, but it was not written to us.

 

[Lodic]

Your "proof" is ethereal, The BIGGEST proofs I have is that the earth is still going right on as it did in 65 AD, & 71 AD. And, the fact that if the trib has already occurred, Jesus is WAY overdue! You know what He said in Matt. 24, and He has NOT yet fulfilled His prophecy of His own return, IN GREAT POWER & GLORY, SEEN BY ALL, EVEN THOSE WHO PIERCED HIM! If He'd come & been seen by all, the Chinese, Japanese, Scythians, Germans, Gauls, Celts, Picts, etc. woulda mentioned it. And he said NOTHING about TWO returns.

You fail to understand that the Great Tribulation was a localized event, not a worldwide event.

I suggest you toss the trash you've been reading from Preston, Gentry, etc. & stick to what GOD had men write, and to works of history. Those pret authors are like Hal Lindsey-just out to make a buck.

I don't read stuff from Full Preterists like Preston, but I completely trust Gentry, DeMar, et al precisely because they stick to a proper interpretation of Scripture. Like so many of our discussions, you and I just keep going round and round the same arguments. It doesn't matter how much proof I show you, you refuse to see it. Repeating your points over and over doesn't make you right.

 

[37818]

Yes, I know that is where we get the word "rapture" from, but I disagree with the "rapture" doctrine. Traditionally, 1 Thessalonians 4:13-18 has been interpreted to refer to the General Resurrection and the 2nd Coming. Verse 17 tells us that after the dead are resurrected, those who are alive, will from that time forward get to be with Jesus and the resurrected forever. At Jesus’ “coming” or “appearing,” those who are still alive will be “changed” or “transformed” so that their mortal bodies will become incorruptible, deathless. This is all that Paul intends to say here.

I do not understand your disagreement. Start another thread.

 

[37818]

Why would Jesus change the setting of His answer? Why would He confuse His disciples by this paradigm shift? There is nothing in the passage to indicate that He switched the timing of His answer. "They will hand you (not them) over to persecution", "when you (not them) see the abomination of desolation", etc. This clearly refers to the generation of the guys He was speaking to, not a future generation. The Bible was written for us, but it was not written to us.

Set my understanding of Matthew 24:33-34 side by side yours. Re: Matthew 24:1-2 my understanding side by side yours too. Start another thread on this too.

 

[Lodic]

I do not understand your disagreement. Start another thread.

I'll try to remember, but the Thanksgiving holiday will have me pretty busy until next week. I must complement you on a very pleasant and civil conversation, despite our different views. On that note, here's wishing a Happy Thanksgiving to you and yours.

 

[37818]

Everyone here, a happy Thanksgiving.

 

[Squire Robertsson]

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