Featured Election Question

You lost me brother...

 

Let me ask in this context.

But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruit; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming. 1 Cor 15:23

A. Does the use of the word firstfruit there imply there will be other fruit later?

Now the apostles and elders came together to consider this matter. And when there had been much dispute, Peter rose up and said to them: “Men and brethren, you know that a good while ago God chose among us, that by my mouth the Gentiles should hear the word of the gospel and believe. “So God, who knows the heart, acknowledged them by giving them the Holy Spirit, just as He did to us, Acts 15:6-8

B. Is that verse speaking of the elect? Beginning at Pentecost and continuing onward?

C. Is it the Holy Spirit that sets apart the elect as the elect?

“Simon has declared how God at the first visited the Gentiles to take out of them a people for His name. Acts 15:14

D. Is that continuing today, that God is still taking out of the nations a people for his name, called, the elect and giving them his Holy Spirit.

What does Paul call these in, Romans 8:23 And not only they, but ourselves also, which have the firstfruit of the Spirit, even we ourselves groan within ourselves, waiting for the adoption, to wit, the redemption of our body.

E. Does the use of the word firstfruit here imply there will be other fruit of the Spirit at another time?

And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment: Hebrews 9:27

F. Will they be raised from the dead for this judgement?

G. Could not God at this time because of the faithfulness of Christ and by his grace not give his Spirit to the man who lived 500 miles from Abraham with his fourteen kids and was not at that time called?

 

That is usually the conclusion that many wrongfully draw.

First, the scriptures NEVER say anyone is elected or chosen or ordained to hell.

Second, election is based upon the presupposition that man has already been justly condemned to hell due to sin. That is why we are saved "according to his MERCY" rather than according to justice. Mercy presupposes that they justly deserve hell or else "mercy" is meaningless.

The distinction between mercy and grace is that mercy is not receiving what we justly deserve (damnation) while grace is receiving what we don't justly deserve (salvation).

From God's standpoint of election men already were condemned justly to hell and God in His mercy chose to save some while merely allowing others to continue JUSTLY in their hatred of God and just consequences (Rom. 8:7-8). Hence, nothing prevents the worst sinner from going to heaven but their own depraved hatred and resistance of God manifested in unbelief in the gospel.

You justly deserve hell and your depraved condition would have brought you to hell freely of your own accord if it were not for God's elective mercy upon you whereby he CHANGED your heart purely by grace.

 

Relative to, "saved," do not the following absolutely have to say the exact same thing?

For by grace, are ye saved through, the faith; According to mercy he saved us by washing of regeneration and renewing of Holy Spirit.

Would like your thoughts.

I would say both have to be relative to, election and pre-ordination.

Now it was preordained before the foundation of the world for the Christ to shed his blood.
This promise, the hope of eternal life, was made before the world began.
And you have the pre-ordination of Eph 1:5-11 which should be carefully read for I do not believe it precludes the presently non elect.