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Ephesians 1:4 being the reason for election.

37818

Well-Known Member
Ephesians 1:4 being the reason for one's election is a condition for one's election.
Ephesians 1:4, . . . According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love: . . .
 

Brightfame52

Well-Known Member
Ephesians 1:4 being the reason for one's election is a condition for one's election.
Ephesians 1:4, . . . According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love: . . .
False teaching.
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Once again a discussion where the actual positions must be inferred.

One side suggests that those chosen individually during their lifetime must fit the proscribed conditions established to be chosen. However, the verse says those who had been chosen, were chosen before the foundation of the world.

The other side just posts "taint so" and then claims he specifically addressed the issue. I kid you not.

I have posted the correct interpretation of Ephesians 1:4 hundreds of times.

Before the foundation of the world, God chose individually His Redeemer, His "Lamb of God." When God made that individual choice, He also chose all of us - everyone who has been redeemed - corporately because you do not choose a Redeemer without a plan to redeem, thus He chose us "in Him"before the foundation of the world.

Why must this "corporate election" view be adopted? Because we all - everyone who has been redeemed - once were not a people chosen for God's own possession, once we - everyone who has been redeemed - had not received mercy. Thus scripture precludes our individual election for salvation before the foundation of the world. It is a lock.
 

37818

Well-Known Member
I did specify
What did you specify?
". . . is a condition for one's election."?
How is that false?
Ephesians 1:4, . . . According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love: . . .
 

Brightfame52

Well-Known Member
What did you specify?
". . . is a condition for one's election."?
How is that false?
Ephesians 1:4, . . . According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love: . . .
I specified it. What part isnt in Eph 1:4
 

Brightfame52

Well-Known Member
If anything Eph 1:4 is the basis for believing in unconditional election, since God performed this gracious act of putting men in Christ before the foundation of the world, b4 they had any being. So when they were born as sinners Eph 2:1-3 they were already chosen in Christ
 
No, this verse is saying God knew that he will have his Son die on the cross to give us grace and he will chastice us, mold as a porter to his image.

Calvinsim is unscriptual.
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Once again a discussion where the actual positions must be inferred.

One side suggests that those chosen individually during their lifetime must fit the proscribed conditions established to be chosen. However, the verse says those who had been chosen, were chosen before the foundation of the world.

The other side just posts "taint so" and then claims he specifically addressed the issue. I kid you not.

I have posted the correct interpretation of Ephesians 1:4 hundreds of times.

Before the foundation of the world, God chose individually His Redeemer, His "Lamb of God." When God made that individual choice, He also chose all of us - everyone who has been redeemed - corporately because you do not choose a Redeemer without a plan to redeem, thus He chose us "in Him"before the foundation of the world.

Why must this "corporate election" view be adopted? Because we all - everyone who has been redeemed - once were not a people chosen for God's own possession, once we - everyone who has been redeemed - had not received mercy. Thus scripture precludes our individual election for salvation before the foundation of the world. It is a lock.
Did anyone dispute God chose individually Logos, the Word to be His Redeemer, His Lamb of God, before the foundation of t he world? Nope
Did anyone dispute that when a Redeemer is chosen, those to be redeemed by the Redeemer are also chosen corporately, thus "in Him." Nope
Did anyone dispute 1 Peter 2:9-10 which says all the redeemed had at one time existed not as a chosen people, and had not yet received mercy? Nope
 

Brightfame52

Well-Known Member
Basically Eph 1:4 is stating that God before the foundation, chose who would be saved. These are they whose Names were written before the foundation in the Lambs Book of Life Rev 13:8

8 And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world.

See those in Eph 1:4 will eventually hear the Gospel of their Salvation Vs 13
 

David Lamb

Well-Known Member
No, this verse is saying God knew that he will have his Son die on the cross to give us grace and he will chastice us, mold as a porter to his image.

Calvinsim is unscriptual.
The doctrines of grace (what you refer to as Calvinism) are indeed scriptural. The bible says that God chose those whom He would save before Creation:

“Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places in Christ, just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before Him in love, having predestined us to adoption as sons by Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the good pleasure of His will, to the praise of the glory of His grace, by which He has made us accepted in the Beloved. In Him we have redemption through His blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of His grace” (Eph 1:3-7 NKJV)
 
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