The Archangel
Well-Known Member
You really should put your id behind your ego...
Nope. Again, you seem not to be able to grasp that the simple sentence is "He chose us." No one that I know of is suggesting that "in Him" isn't important. "In Him" is, however, a prepositional phrase and serves as the direct object (and "in Him" is also in the dative case). In other words, grammatically, "He chose us" is the point Paul is making.
In this verse, who is it that is chosen? Us... the believers. It is really that simple. That we're chosen "in Christ" which--if you take the dative as the "Instrumental Dative" (or dative of means), Christ is the means by which we are chosen--which is important. But, in no way is Paul saying Christ was chosen in this particular passage.
No, I've read the thread. Your arguments aren't compelling because they violate the grammar of the passages. That has not gotten better in what you've posted below.
This makes no rational sense and goes against what the text itself is saying.
As I've already stated, chosen to be holy and blameless is not a problem. But, that only comes through being "In Christ." And, since you are having so much intestinal irritation over "He chose us" and since you seem to think you know context well... why do you skip over προορίζω in v. 5. Clearly the word προορίζω (predestined) is--in a parallel fashion--describing God's choosing "us" in v. 4.
Eisegesis? Me??!! You're the one whose explanation(s) go against the simple grammar of the text itself.
The Archangel
"That choice happened at a time in the past--before the foundation of the world. "
Again Calvinist always leave Jesus out, where it says "IN HIM".
Nope. Again, you seem not to be able to grasp that the simple sentence is "He chose us." No one that I know of is suggesting that "in Him" isn't important. "In Him" is, however, a prepositional phrase and serves as the direct object (and "in Him" is also in the dative case). In other words, grammatically, "He chose us" is the point Paul is making.
In this verse, who is it that is chosen? Us... the believers. It is really that simple. That we're chosen "in Christ" which--if you take the dative as the "Instrumental Dative" (or dative of means), Christ is the means by which we are chosen--which is important. But, in no way is Paul saying Christ was chosen in this particular passage.
I'll explain it for you again since you haven't read the thread.
No, I've read the thread. Your arguments aren't compelling because they violate the grammar of the passages. That has not gotten better in what you've posted below.
YOU were NOT ALWAYS IN HIM.
You were SEPARATE FROM JESUS, with no covenant promises, IE NOT CHOSEN or ELECT for salvation, If you were CHOSEN and elect for salvation prior to being IN CHRIST then you would have the HIGHEST HOPE and GOD. Scripture says you had NIETHER.
This makes no rational sense and goes against what the text itself is saying.
Ephesians 1 is talking TO saved folks, And he is telling THOSE SAVED FOLKS, IN CHRIST Have been chosen for what? ----> Chosen to be holy and blameless.
He could have said they were chosen to take out the trash, chosen to eat all the cows, chosen to steer the clouds in heaven.
We read the sentence to see what they are chosen for.....This is called CONTEXT.
As I've already stated, chosen to be holy and blameless is not a problem. But, that only comes through being "In Christ." And, since you are having so much intestinal irritation over "He chose us" and since you seem to think you know context well... why do you skip over προορίζω in v. 5. Clearly the word προορίζω (predestined) is--in a parallel fashion--describing God's choosing "us" in v. 4.
The problem is you have an eisegesis of loading the word CHOSEN, ELECT to ONLY mean CHOSEN for Salvation.
So the next time your buddy CHOSE to eat a Cheeseburger you don't assume he is ELECT of God and heaven bound.
Eisegesis? Me??!! You're the one whose explanation(s) go against the simple grammar of the text itself.
The Archangel