Eschatology?

[OldRegular]

Then how, as I asked earlier, does Jesus speak of a first resurrection in Revelation 20:5, 6? A "first resurrection" requires there to be at least a second. Note that Jesus gives you a clue in the passage you cite, given that He too speaks of a more than one resurrection here. One being the resurrection of life, the second of damnation. The first takes place at the Rapture, as Paul details in 2 Thessalonians 4. The resurrection of damnation comes at the Great White Throne judgment.

Again you are reading something into the Scripture that is not there:

John 5:28, 29
28. Marvel not at this: for the hour is coming, in the which all that are in the graves shall hear his voice,
29. And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation.

Jesus Christ speaks of one time period: "the hour is coming", not the hours are coming.

Jesus Christ speaks of one voice: "his voice": not voices!

And then most significantly: "in the which all that are in the graves shall hear his voice, And shall come forth". Now after ALL COME FORTH the separation takes place at the White Throne!

Now tell me when the first resurrection rurally occurred and then who has part in that first resurrection.

 

[thisnumbersdisconnected]

Now tell me when the first resurrection rurally occurred and then who has part in that first resurrection.

I already did. The first resurrection is at the Rapture as told of by Paul in 1 Thessalonians 4:13-18. The second is at the Great White Throne judgment. Now let me really rock you back on your heels: There is more than one judgment.

 

[OldRegular]

I already did. The first resurrection is at the Rapture as told of by Paul in 1 Thessalonians 4:13-18. The second is at the Great White Throne judgment. Now let me really rock you back on your heels: There is more than one judgment.

No! The First Resurrection was that of Jesus Christ. Those who have part in that First Resurrection are the "true believers", the Saints. Over these the second death has no power. Perhaps you recall what the Apostle Paul tells us about the Resurrection of Jesus Christ: Romans 4:25. Who was delivered for our offences, and was raised again for our justification.

Those who have part in the First Resurrection, those who are justified have no part in the Second Death: Revelation 20:6. Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.

 

[OldRegular]

TND,

Consider Revelation 20:4, 5
4. And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.
5. But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection.

You insist these are the ones who are raptured out of the world prior to the "tribulation", the first resurrection. Yet if Revelation Chapters 4-19 describes the seven year tribulation period how do those who had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; get raptured since the beast is not manifested until this seven year period.

 

[thisnumbersdisconnected]

No! The First Resurrection was that of Jesus Christ.

That contradicts the Revelation passage. How can you say the "first resurrection" spoken of in vv. 5, 6 refers to Jesus' resurrection? Clearly v. 6 refers back to v. 4, in which John is told the resurrection before the 1,000 year reign is the "first resurrection."

 

[OldRegular]

That contradicts the Revelation passage. How can you say the "first resurrection" spoken of in vv. 5, 6 refers to Jesus' resurrection? Clearly v. 6 refers back to v. 4, in which John is told the resurrection before the 1,000 year reign is the "first resurrection."

Not really! Consider verse 20:4. And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.

Who is reigning now? Jesus Christ!

Who is reigning with Jesus Christ now? The deceased Saints. John sees souls, not resurrected bodies.

And you still haven't answered the question I asked about how those which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; were in the first resurrection since the beast is not around until after they first resurrection according to dispensational eschatology!