Dr. Walter
New Member
Joh 6:37 All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.
38 For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me.
39 And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.
40 And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day.
HP: DW tries to make this passage walk on all four legs in support of a system of necessity know as OSAS, the heart and soul of Calvinism. There are some important factors to consider that evidently DW has not considered. The first glaring thing that stands out to me is the notion of the ‘will of Him” or the will of God. God wills many things, including the salvation of all, 2Pe 3:9 ¶ The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.”
Like I predicted my opponents cannot, and I repeat cannot interpret this text according to its immediate context. Your first attempt is lame. Jesus is not speaking about all the other possibilities of God's will but is explicitly telling you exactly what the will of God is about in this text:
And this is the Father’s will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.
The very thing that Christ identifies in this context as the revealed will of His father is the very thing you go outside this context to contradict. What does he say is the Father's will in regard to this context?? "that OF ALL which he hath given me I SHALL LOSE NOTHING". But what do you try to do by going out side the context?? You try to go outside the context and redefine the specific will of God stated here to mean the very OPPOSITE of what he says it is! Thus you are guilty of PITTING scripture against scripture to oppose the very thing the context says is the Father's will.
When this passage speaks of the will of God ‘willing’ that every one that ‘seeth the Son and believeth’ may have eternal life, that in no wise is paramount to OSAS or that all that come to Him will persevere in faith until the end.
Apparently you cannot read, right? Before he makes the statement in verse 40 (btw which is contrasted to verse 36) he defines what he means in verse 39 to be the will of God in regard to "OF ALL" that the Father gives him!!!! What is that concerning "OF ALL" given him? Cat bite your tongue? Here let me help you "that I SHALL LOSE NOTHING."
Second, that finalized statement is reinforced by the same phrase that concludes verse 40 - or the promise to raise "it" (those he will not lose) up at the last day. Verse 40 simply defines "coming" to Christ as "believing" thus ALL that the father gives comes to Christ - they believe on Christ and "OF ALL" that are given to Christ - believers - NOT ONE ARE LOST.
Again, God’s will, in reality, does not necessitate salvation, but is an expression of His desire which some times is not accomplished when it comes to sentient moral beings exercising a free will. The only way this passage supports OSAS is if one applies such a presupposition to the passage as a lenses by which to interpret it.
"Again" you show how eisgesis is done but don't have a clue about exegesis. Giving by the father is stated to be the CAUSE not the consequence of those coming to Christ but your theory reverses the stated cause and effect.
The Father does NOT merely have the express desire to give these to the Son but actual gave them and every one He gave actually come as John 6:37 proves.
Secondly, DW consistently and without fail merely begs the question of the manner in which those come to Him.
The text expressly states the manner in which they come to Christ - THEY ARE GIVEN BY THE FATHER TO COME and ALL DO COME because they are given to come. Can't help if you don't like the way it reads or that it does not fit your soteriology.
Even if you argue it is according to God's prescience, ominiscience that He gave them to the Son - can his omnicience be wrong? No! Therefore any way you look at it ALL given are ALL that come and ALL given NONE are lost unless both God's omnicience and purpose can be wrong?????
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