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Flaws of Calvinism

rockytopva

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Calvin's roasting of Servetus....Italian poet Camillo Renato protested: "Neither God nor his spirit have counselled such an action. Christ did not treat those who negated him that way." And French humanist Sébastien Chateillon wrote: "To kill a man is not to protect a doctrine, but it is to kill a man." Servetus himself had said: "I consider it a serious matter to kill men because they are in error on some question of scriptural interpretation, when we know that even the elect ones may be led astray into error."
 

Zaatar71

Active Member
Fact checkers have found this:
Grant

[ 1,,G1325, didomi ]
to give," is rendered "grant" in Mark 10:37; Luke 1:74; Acts 4:29; Acts 11:18; Acts 14:3. See GIVE.

It does not say..."allow",lol
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
No, wasn't referring to "burn the barn down" as ignoring God's Word, was referring to our normal arguments when we get together. We've had some barn burners haven't we?

Anyway, I totally disagree, and I'm sure you already knew that.

Allow me to ask this question, and thank you, Van, for explaining your position.

In Heb. 6:4-6, How is it possible that a person who was "made partaker of the Holy Spirit" if he should fall away (stop believing) that's it's impossible for him to be renewed unto repentance, if as you say man cannot lose his salvation?
I present my understanding of scripture as clearly as I can. Usually the response is taint so, with no actual rebuttal as to why it taint so.

I have posted that no scripture supports Calvinism, except scripture does support once saved always saved. Here is what the OP said:


Preservation of the Saved - Once a person has been transferred into Christ, they undergo spiritual rebirth, with their faith protected by the power of God, and then sealed in Christ with the Holy Spirit forever, thus salvation cannot be lost.

Now, rather than address the scriptures that clearly prove once saved always saved, you have brought up vague verses where others have read into the verse loss of salvation. All those views are precluded by the passages I have referenced. You cannot cause yourself to be no longer indwelt forever. You cannot cause yourself to not be born anew as a spiritual child of God. You cannot transfer yourself out of being "in Christ." Yet rather than accept the evidence presented, you seem to ignore it, and bring up the well know and often rebutted vague verses.

Obviously I can rebut them all, as I have studied the topic.

I presented my interpretation of Hebrews 3:14-15 and your rebuttal was "I disagree."

Now you want me to explain how Hebrews 6:4-6 does not in any way support your biblically impossible doctrine. And when I do, will you simply say you disagree and bring up yet another vague verse?

Recently a good man was shot and killed by those unwilling to engage in debate with truth and integrity. We must be better than that.

Hebrews 6:4-6 NASB
For it is impossible, in the case of those who have once been enlightened and have tasted of the heavenly gift and have been made partakers of the Holy Spirit, and have tasted the good word of God and the powers of the age to come, and then have fallen away, to restore them again to repentance ]since they again crucify to themselves the Son of God and put Him to open shame.

First, this passage is referring to people who have heard and understood the gospel, but either have rejected it or did not fully embrace it such that God did not credit their faith as righteousness. Hebrews 6:9 makes clear, this passage is NOT referring to those actually saved, enjoying things (like eternal security) that accompany salvation.

Second, hearing, and understanding the gospel is what is meant by being made (because of the revelation of the gospel) partakers of the Holy Spirit. The inspired word is the work product of the Holy Spirit. What does "tasted" the powers of the age to come. Those would be the three Persons of the trinity, plus the witness of the children of God in my opinion.
Why can those who have rejected, partially or fully, the gospel be restored? Because there is no other gospel, no other path, they must "come to their senses" and stop rejecting Christ crucified.
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I see where someone has claimed "Didomi" (G1325) is not translated as "allow" according to his source. Yes, some translation versions do not translate the Greek word ever as allow. But other do. Thus the implication I made the claim up, was posted, based on little or no study.

No one, not any of our posters, pointed out this claim is blatantly false. We cannot edify if we do not post with truth and integrity.

Does the NASB translate Didomi" as allow? See Acts 2:27.

Does the NKJV translate Didomi as allow? See Acts 13:35

Does the CSB translate Didomi as allow? See Mark 10:37

Does anyone want to say "I was wrong" with truth and integrity?
 
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