Your view of God just calling certain ones makes it random,
No it does not. False dichotomy. His choice is based on His eternal purpose that He has chosen not to reveal to us entirely. This does not make it "random." You are saying that the potter does NOT have the right over the clay to make one vessel for honorable use and another for common use. You are asserting a
necessity upon God that He
has to create a certain way (creatures with
autonomous free will) because of some transcendent moral standard to which God Himself must be accountable. Therefore, you argue that an essential part of God's being--His omniscience--is partly
defined by autonomous, ontologically separate entities that create this information
ex nihilo. In other words, God did not create man in His image, but God and man create each other in their image (a la process theology).
God's word supports the fact that God Foreknew
And what is the Scriptural definition of each instance of
ginwskw and
proginwskw grammatically and in
context?
you want to make foreknowing into a mystrious random decree that God had to make it a relationship before He could know our chpoices, [sic]
God calls, justifies, sanctifies, and glorifies based on His choice "beforehand" to
know ("relationship") the same people. That is what the word means.
then you say no He always knew the choice we would make but that has no bearing on His decision.
The choice we make is a
result of God's redemptive chain applied to us. God applies this redemptive chain on us based on His fore-relationshipping us. This is what Romans 8:28-30 means.
It is a little like the evolutionist saying the world came about randomingly from notheing instead as we believers say God created the earth and man in an orderly fashion. 1 day at a time and gave us the account showing the creation order on each day.
No, your position of the mutual independence of God's attributes (His omniscience) on His creation is like arguing that the world came about through knowledge of what man would do, and God had to do it that way because his knowledge of what man would do is part of His being.
Paul said God Foreknew us and Predestined us based on that foreknowledge.
No, He said
whom He did foreknow, He also did predestinate..."
whom, not
about whom. Just as Jesus said of some people "I
never knew [had a relationship with] you," so it is true that of those that God
FOREknew [chose in eternity to have a relationship with], He predestined to conform to the image of His Son. Your
assumption that God's redemptive chain is based on
information about people (i.e. "foreseen faith") is NOT present in the text. You are begging the question because you are
assuming the very thing that you must
prove, which is the meaning of the text in the OP.
Seems simple to me that since God knew everyone and everything about then God called us basedon His knowledge of us and that would include knowing what choice we would make concerning Christ.
That is the very thing that you have yet to prove with Scripture. You are simply
assuming it. I have argued that the text means otherwise, and all you have argued is your assumption where you are reading into the text something that is not there.
All is based on His plan, His Choice His foreknowledge and independence of us.
Then, why are you arguing that salvation is
dependent on a foreseen choice that people make?
All is what HE WILLED to do His way. Scripture to me supports that in that whom He forknew he Predestined and called, justifying when we called on Christ for salvation and He will give us a Glorified body someday yet future.
Yes,
whom He foreknew, NOT
about whom he foreknew.