I went out of town for a few days and lost traction on the "two calls" thread. I want to pick up a part of that thread for discussion.
The free will position teaches that sinful man is capable of responding positively to the Gospel call because God has imparted the ability to do so. As a result it is the opinion of certain theologians (of which I am one) that this belief is contrary to the doctrine that man is completely fallen in his nature and incapable of any positive act of faith while in his fallen nature (Rom. 3:10; 3:23; 8:7; 1 Cor. 2:14; Eph. 2:1; Heb. 11:6).
The doctrines of grace position is that man is completely fallen in his nature, and his will is in bondage to sin (Rom. 6). Sinful man is incapable of any positive response to the Gospel for reasons given in the previous paragraph. In order for man to exercise a positive response to the Gospel, God must first make man capable of such a response (Ezk. 36:26; Eph. 1:4-5).
So, does the Bible teach that there is a free offer of the Gospel to sinners? We know that salvation is a free gift (Rom. 6:23) and offered without cost (Is. 55:1). But is the Gospel offer a free offer in that it is not only offered freely to all, but all are capable of freely receiving it? I will not answer for the free will position, but I will venture an opinion from the doctrines of grace perspective.
The Gospel is, indeed, a free offer and is freely received by those who do receive it. The difference with the free will side is that the free offer of the Gospel is offered only to the elect (John 6:37); those whom the Father bequeaths to the Son. There are some within the doctrines of grace camp who believe that the Gospel is freely offered to all; elect and non-elect. That is a logical fallacy. You cannot offer something freely to those who cannot freely receive it. In order to keep us from pride we must remember that God has not revealed to us who makes up the rank of the elect. That knowledge remains with God alone (Deut. 29:29).
It is important to point this out because it gets to the heart of the two call debate.
The free will position teaches that sinful man is capable of responding positively to the Gospel call because God has imparted the ability to do so. As a result it is the opinion of certain theologians (of which I am one) that this belief is contrary to the doctrine that man is completely fallen in his nature and incapable of any positive act of faith while in his fallen nature (Rom. 3:10; 3:23; 8:7; 1 Cor. 2:14; Eph. 2:1; Heb. 11:6).
The doctrines of grace position is that man is completely fallen in his nature, and his will is in bondage to sin (Rom. 6). Sinful man is incapable of any positive response to the Gospel for reasons given in the previous paragraph. In order for man to exercise a positive response to the Gospel, God must first make man capable of such a response (Ezk. 36:26; Eph. 1:4-5).
So, does the Bible teach that there is a free offer of the Gospel to sinners? We know that salvation is a free gift (Rom. 6:23) and offered without cost (Is. 55:1). But is the Gospel offer a free offer in that it is not only offered freely to all, but all are capable of freely receiving it? I will not answer for the free will position, but I will venture an opinion from the doctrines of grace perspective.
The Gospel is, indeed, a free offer and is freely received by those who do receive it. The difference with the free will side is that the free offer of the Gospel is offered only to the elect (John 6:37); those whom the Father bequeaths to the Son. There are some within the doctrines of grace camp who believe that the Gospel is freely offered to all; elect and non-elect. That is a logical fallacy. You cannot offer something freely to those who cannot freely receive it. In order to keep us from pride we must remember that God has not revealed to us who makes up the rank of the elect. That knowledge remains with God alone (Deut. 29:29).
It is important to point this out because it gets to the heart of the two call debate.