Quote:
Drfuss: In John, Jesus tells the Samaritan woman that salvation is of the Jews implying that Samaritans cannot be saved. Does that mean that Gentiles must become Jews to receive salvation?
HP: Excellent question. What do you think?
Doesn’t it depend on whether or not you are referring to those living in this dispensation or the ones of the OT or both? Would it also not depend on ones definition of a Jew? Paul stated Ro 2:28 “For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh:”
drfuss: Okay, I didn't adquately define my question. Let's limit it to the time from Moses to the cross/ressurrection.
Question:
In John, Jesus tells the Samaritan woman that salvation is of the Jews implying that Samaritans cannot be saved. Does that mean that Gentiles must become Jews to receive salvation during the time from Moses to the cross?
Drfuss: In John, Jesus tells the Samaritan woman that salvation is of the Jews implying that Samaritans cannot be saved. Does that mean that Gentiles must become Jews to receive salvation?
HP: Excellent question. What do you think?
Doesn’t it depend on whether or not you are referring to those living in this dispensation or the ones of the OT or both? Would it also not depend on ones definition of a Jew? Paul stated Ro 2:28 “For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh:”
drfuss: Okay, I didn't adquately define my question. Let's limit it to the time from Moses to the cross/ressurrection.
Question:
In John, Jesus tells the Samaritan woman that salvation is of the Jews implying that Samaritans cannot be saved. Does that mean that Gentiles must become Jews to receive salvation during the time from Moses to the cross?