Just kicking around thoughts in my head.
Your thoughts upon applying, the sin concept of 1 Cor 5:1-5, especially V 5, to the sin of Judas situation?
Saints, being turned over to Satan, is solely for their correction and benefit, given that God grants them repentance.
1 It is actually reported that there is fornication among you, and such fornication as is not even among the Gentiles, that
one of you hath his father`s wife.
5 to deliver such a one unto Satan for the destruction of the flesh, that the spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus. 1 Cor 5
19 holding
faith and a good conscience; which some
having thrust from them made shipwreck concerning the faith:
20 of whom is Hymenaeus and Alexander;
whom I delivered unto Satan, that they might be taught not to blaspheme. 1 Tim 1
25 in meekness
correcting them that oppose themselves; if peradventure God may give them repentance unto the knowledge of the truth,
26 and they
may recover themselves out of the snare of the devil, having been taken captive by him unto his will. 2 Tim 2
31 Simon, Simon, behold,
Satan asked to have you, that he might sift you as wheat:
32 but
I made supplication for thee, that thy faith fail not; and do thou, when
once thou hast turned again, establish thy brethren. Lu 22
There was to be no correction for Judas, a devil. (you don't turn Satan over to Satan to be corrected).
24 The Son of man goeth, even as it is written of him: but
woe unto that man through whom the Son of man is betrayed! good were it for that man if he had not been born. Mt 26
21 For the Son of man goeth, even as it is written of him: but
woe unto that man through whom the Son of man is betrayed! good were it for that man if he had not been born. Mk 14
22 For the Son of man indeed goeth, as it hath been determined: but
woe unto that man through whom he is betrayed! Lu 22