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. . . God the Son . . . .

37818

37818

Well-Known Member
It is not in dispute that, God the Father, the Son of God is God, and the Holy Spirit is God. And They are NOT three gods but They are the One and Same God. Yet nowhere in the written word of God is the Son of God, who the Father calls God, Hebrews 1:8, to be called "God the Son." Why the need to do so?
 
37818

37818

Well-Known Member
So what is the issue?
There is more than one Biblical version of the Trinity. [ At least three views. ]

My issue. The Son has always been both the Son of God and God. So to say "God the Son" conflates these two identities.

John 1:1-2. Both being with God and being God.
 
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V

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
37818 said:
So what is the issue?
There is more than one Biblical version of the Trinity. [ At least three views. ]

My issue. The Son has always been both the Son of God and God. So to say "God the Son" conflates these two identities.

John 1:1-2. Both being with God and being God.
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God the Son was with God the Father, and God the Son was God. One God in three eternally existent persons.
 
V

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
God the Son is found in scripture by logical necessity.

John 1:1 says the "Word" (Logos) was both with God, thus another Person, and was God.

John 1:14 says "And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us; and we saw His glory, glory as of the [monogenes] from the Father, full of grace and truth." The Greek word monogenes when used to describe an aspect of God in the flesh, says He is unique , and the reason is God in the flesh is uniquely divine, God incarnate.

John 3:16 says, "“For God so loved the world, that He gave His [monogenes] Son, so that everyone who believes in Him will not perish, but have eternal life.

Thus the Second Person of the Trinity, Logos became a "monogenes" from God when He became flesh, and this "mongenes" refers to God's Son.

It is a lock.
 
37818

37818

Well-Known Member
Van said:
Thus the Second Person of the Trinity, Logos became a "monogenes" from God when He became flesh, and this "mongenes" refers to God's Son.
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He didn't become the Son, He always was the Son, John 1:18.

1 John 4:9.
 
Baptizo

Baptizo

Member
Technically "God The Son" is a man made title. However, all it means to me is that He is The Son of God who is God.
 
37818

37818

Well-Known Member
Van said:
God the Son is found in scripture by logical necessity.
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Why? There is only one God not two or three gods.
The Son is called God in Hebrews 1:8-9 by God. So the Son called God has a God. But being called "God the Son" would make Him a second god? Why not, if He needs to be called ".God the Son?"

The Son is both the Son of God and God being the same God, not another god.
 
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CJP69

CJP69

Active Member
37818 said:
It is not in dispute that, God the Father, the Son of God is God, and the Holy Spirit is God. And They are NOT three gods but They are the One and Same God. Yet nowhere in the written word of God is the Son of God, who the Father calls God, Hebrews 1:8, to be called "God the Son." Why the need to do so?
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A Rose by any other name is still a Rose.

Why not call Him "God the Son"?

What else would you have Him be called that He isn't already commonly referred to as?
 
CJP69

CJP69

Active Member
37818 said:
It is not necessary. The question I had asked, why must it be necessary to call the Son, God "the Son?" We are not Tritheists.
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Repeating yourself isn't the same as answering the question...

A Rose by any other name is still a Rose.

Why not call Him "God the Son"?

What else would you have Him be called that He isn't already commonly referred to as?
 
37818

37818

Well-Known Member
John 10:30-33, . . . I and my Father are one. Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him. Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me? The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God. . . .

John 10:36, . . . Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?
 
37818

37818

Well-Known Member
CJP69 said:
That's stupidity.

He never called Him "Jesus" either!
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Whom did the following command ultimately come from?

Matthew 1:21, And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.

Luke 1:31, And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS.
 
CJP69

CJP69

Active Member
37818 said:
Whom did the following command ultimately come from?

Matthew 1:21, And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.

Luke 1:31, And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS.
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So pathetically predictable! Boring!

"Jesus" is an English version of God the Son's name. God never called him that. What God called Him was Ἰησοῦν, which in Hebrew is pronounced Ye-Shu-Ah. It's the same name as Joshua.

Thus, by your own argument, you should stop using the name "Jesus".
 
37818

37818

Well-Known Member
CJP69 said:
So pathetically predictable! Boring!

"Jesus" is an English version of God the Son's name. God never called him that. What God called Him was Ἰησοῦν, which in Hebrew is pronounced Ye-Shu-Ah. It's the same name as Joshua.

Thus, by your own argument, you should stop using the name "Jesus".
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It is you who is not being rational here. Ending this discussion.
Yes. We speak English.
English from the Greek from the Hebrew.
 
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